NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam 2019

1. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:

Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative

Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive

Has type A blood and the fetus has type O

Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B

Question 2. Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?

Retropharyngeal abscess

Laryngospasms

Rupturing of the tonsils

Gagging induced aspiration

Question 3. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize?

60 to 70

40 to 60

30 to 40

10 to 20

Question 4. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?

1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)

1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)

1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells)

1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells)

Question 5. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

IL–1 and IL-6

IL-2 and TNF-?

IFN and IL-12

TNF-ß and IL-4

Question 6. What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?

Glomerular filtration

Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3

Increased heart rate

Compensatory hypertrophy

Question 7. Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?

IgA

IgE

IgG

IgM

Question 8. Causes of hyperkalemia include:

Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition

Vomiting and diarrhea

Renal failure and Addison disease

Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease

Question 9. What is the first stage in the infectious process?

Invasion

Colonization

Spread

Multiplication

Question 10. Which statement is true concerning the IgM?

IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.

IgM mediates many common allergic responses.

IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins.

IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.

Question 11. An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect

Question 12. What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

Low birth weight

Alcohol consumption during pregnancy

Premature birth

Smoking during pregnancy

Question 13. Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?

The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.

The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.

The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.

The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.

Question 14. What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?

Sodium retention

Sodium excretion

Water retention

Water excretion

Question 15. What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?

Epididymis

Lymph nodes

Urethra

Prostate

Question 16. Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?

The resulting pain is severe.

Benign tumors are not encapsulated.

Benign tumors are fast growing.

The cells are well-differentiated.

Question 17. Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?

Iron deficiency

Pernicious

Sideroblastic

Hemolytic

Question 18. Apoptosis is a(an):

Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive

Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb

Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene

Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia

Question 19. What is the functional unit of the kidney called?

Glomerulus

Nephron

Collecting duct

Pyramid

Question 20. Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?

A

B

C

D

Question 21. The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?

Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries

Diffusion rate in the renal cortex

Diffusion rate in the renal medulla

Glomerular active transport

Question 22. Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?

Difficult deflation

Easy inflation

Stiffness

Inability to diffuse oxygen

Question 23. What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?

Decreased dietary intake

Chronic blood loss

Vitamin deficiency

Autoimmune disease

Question 24. Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections?

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)

Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir)

Bichloroacetic acid (BCA)

Question 25. In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a:

Basal cell

Target cell

Caretaker gene

Proto-oncogene

Question 26. What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

Immature immune system

Small alveoli

Surfactant deficiency

Anemia

Question 27. Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?

Gut

Spleen

Bone marrow

Thymus

Question 28. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Iron

Zinc

Iodine

Magnesium

Question 29. Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?

Bacteria

Fungi

Viruses

Yeasts

Question 30. Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?

Antidiuretic hormone

Aldosterone

Erythropoietin

Angiotensinogen

Question 31. Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS)

Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus

Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia

Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

Question 32. Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?

Ligase chain reaction (LCR)

Gram-stain technique

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

DNA testing

Question 33. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?

Neutrophils

Monocytes

Eosinophils

T lymphocytes

Question 34. What is the life span of platelets (in days)?

10

30

90

120

Question 35. What is the role of caretaker genes?

Maintenance of genomic integrity

Proliferation of cancer cells

Secretion of growth factors

Restoration of normal tissue structure

Question 36. Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life?

Monocytes

Platelets

Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Question 37. Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?

Perfusion

Ventilation

Respiration

Diffusion

Question 38. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?

Bruton disease

DiGeorge syndrome

Reticular dysgenesis

Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Question 39. Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?

Alcohol

Steroids

Antihistamines

Antidepressants

Question 40. Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?

Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.

Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.

Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.

Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.

Question 41. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?

Passive-acquired immunity

Active-acquired immunity

Passive-innate immunity

Active-innate immunity

Question 42. Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?

Liver

Endometrial

Stomach

Colon

Question 43. What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

Macula densa

Visceral epithelium

Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

Filtration slits

Question 44. What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?

Hypotension

Hyperesthesia

Hypoxia

Ischemia

Question 45. Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?

0 and 1

2 and 4

5 and 6

6 and 7

Question 46. What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?

To evaluate the cause of hypoxia

To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration

To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane

To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations

Question 47. Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Question 48. The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?

Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)

Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot

Degrading the fibrin within blood clots

Question 49. The coronary ostia are located in the:

Left ventricle

Aortic valve

Coronary sinus

Aorta

Question 50. Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:

Vagus nerve

Sympathetic nervous system

Somatic nervous system

Parasympathetic nervous system

Question 51. Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized?

Dysplasia

Hyperplasia

Myoplasia

Anaplasia

Question 52. Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency

Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.

Question 53. What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?

Development of antibiotic resistance

Changes in virulence

Changes in pathogenicity

Mutations into different strains

Question 54. What is the action of urodilatin?

Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.

It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.

Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.

It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.

Question 55. How is most carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood transported?

Attached to oxygen

In the form of bicarbonate

Combined with albumin

Dissolved in the plasma

Question 56. The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?

Bones

Brain

Bladder

Kidney

Question 57. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction

I

II

III

IV

Question 58. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?

IgM

IgG

IgE

IgA

Question 59. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

Ovarian

Uterine

Cervical

Vaginal

Question 60. The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?

16 and 20

20 and 24

24 and 30

30 and 36