Week 1
discussion
DQ1 The reading for this week includes the following
statement: "It is emphasized that scientists, through their
investigations, do not prove anything" (GCU, 2014). A similar statement
was made in an open letter to the editor of Science: "There is always some uncertainty
associated with scientific conclusions; science never absolutely proves
anything" (Glieck et al., 2010). While technically true when considering
the scientific method, it may be more beneficial to employ a graduated approach
by classifying scientific information as "proven, evolving, [or]
borderline science" (Moghissi, Amin, & McNulty, 2010).
Read "Does Science Never Absolutely Prove
Anything?" by Moghissi, Amin, and McNulty. Then consider the theory of
evolution. Do you consider the theory of evolution proven, evolving, or
borderline science? Support your answer.
DQ2 In this Topic, you have learned the terms used to
describe motion (e.g., distance, speed, and acceleration) as well as Newton's
laws explaining motion. Describe at least two ways the material you have
learned in this unit applies to driving a car (refer to the Arizona Driver
License Manual located within the weekly readings). Has what you have learned
in this Topic changed how you drive? If so, please explain.
Week 2
discussion
DQ1 The politicians and the news media often warn us of an
impending energy crisis. After visiting the website for the United States
Energy Information Administration (located within the weekly readings) post
your thoughts on the following:
What is the energy crisis?
What can be done about the energy crisis?
How do you feel about the energy crisis?
DQ2 Read the resource about the International Space Station
(ISS) located within the weekly readings. The space station orbits Earth about
400 km above the surface of Earth (NASA.gov). At this height the force of
gravity from Earth is only about 10% less than on the surface of Earth. Using
the concepts of circular motion and gravitational forces learned in this Topic;
explain the following in your own words:
Why does the space station not fall down?
Why do the astronauts float inside the space station?
Week 3
discussion
DQ1 The United States Navy Diving Manual contains a wealth
of information about diving from the history of diving to underwater physics
and physiology. Start by browsing the U.S. Navy Diving Manual (located within
the weekly readings) and then post a response to the following questions: How
do the pressure variations with depth affect our ability to explore the ocean?
In particular, what are some of the challenges of scuba diving?
DQ2 Energy.gov is the official website of the United States
Department of Energy (located within the weekly readings). On this website, you
can find a variety of helpful resources, including resources on how to conserve
energy. Read the information about thermostats then consider the following
question:
On a hot summer day, you need to leave your house for 30
minutes. To use the least amount of energy, should you turn off your air
conditioning system, turn up the thermostat, or leave it set at your normal
temperature? For those of you more familiar with cold winter days, you may
consider the same about your heating system on a cold winter day: Should you
turn it off, turn the thermostat down, or leave it set at your normal temperature?
Explain your answer.
Week 4
discussion
DQ1 Explore the Electrical Safety Foundation International's
web pages on home safety located within the weekly readings. Then answer the
following questions:
What are the dangers associated with electricity in your
home?
What can be done to limit or prevent the possibilities of
dying or getting hurt?
DQ2 Defibrillators are used to revive a person when their
heart has stopped beating. How do they work? What care must the person
administering the treatment take? Give other examples of medical devices based
on the interaction between the human body and electrical currents.
Week 5
discussion
DQ1 How loud is too loud? When is a sound too loud? What can
be done about sounds/noises that are too loud for you?
DQ2 Read the Fact Sheet on Cell Phones and Cancer Risk on
the National Cancer Institute's website located within the weekly readings.
Address the following questions:
Are the electromagnetic waves from a cell phone detrimental
to your health? If so, what can you do to limit the effects?
What other electromagnetic waves are dangerous for you and
why? What can you do about it?
Week 6
discussion
DQ1 What do scientists use spectroscopy for? Research the
uses of spectroscopy then describe one use and what we have learned from this
use in your own words.
DQ2 This week you have learned about nuclear reactions and
the resulting radiation. In this discussion thread, you will be considering the
health effects of radiation from nuclear reactions. Start by visiting the Health
Effects web pages on the Environmental Protection Agency's website located
within the weekly readings.
Use the radiation dose calculator to find your estimated
annual dose. Report your result and write a comment about it. Were you
surprised? Does the result concern you? What were the major factors
contributing to your estimated exposure? Are you going to change anything as a
result of this finding?
Week 7
discussion
DQ1 The chemical industry is enormous in the industrialized
world. How has society benefitted from advances in the chemical industry? What
negative effects has the growth of the chemical industry had on society?
DQ2 Chemical and Engineering News, a publication of the
American Chemical Society, has a feature called "What's That Stuff?"
These articles give you a look at the chemicals behind everyday products both
naturally occurring and man-made. Explore some of these articles by using the
link provided in the weekly readings. Then select one and post a brief summary
of the article. What did you learn from this exercise?
Week 1
assignment
Application Paper Task 1
Review the "Application Paper Guidelines."
For task 1, identify an application of one or more concepts
from this course. A list of possible topics has been provided in the
"Application Paper Guidelines."
To successfully complete task 1, do the following:
Briefly describe the application. This could be the draft
for your introduction paragraph.
Provide a brief outline of the topics for each of the body
paragraphs.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in
the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.
You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
PHY-102 Application Paper Guidelines
Overall Project Review
During this course, many concepts in the physical sciences
will be examined in detail. You will select an application, research it, and
write a 750-1,000 word paper on it. The following are brief descriptions of the
project tasks:
Task 1: Identify your topic and write a brief outline.
Task 2: Submit your final paper.
Possible Topics for the Application Paper
These are just ideas. You are welcome to pick another topic.
The purpose of Task 1 is for you to present your topic to your instructor and
receive feedback on your plans.
The physics of a sport (pick one)
The physics of a bicycle (or any other machine)
The physics of car accidents
The physics of flying
The physics of space exploration
The camera
The combustion engine
The air conditioner
The chemistry of an element (or an atomic group of elements)
Nuclear medicine
Application of radioactivity (pick one)
Plastic – production and properties
Waste water treatment plants
The chemistry of a pharmaceutical (pick one)
The catalytic converter
The workings of a smokestack of a factory or a power plant
The chemistry of fertilizers
The chemistry of preservatives
Application Paper: Task 1
For Task 1, identify an application of one or more concepts
from this course. A list of possible
topics has been provided above.
To successfully complete task 1, do the following:
1. Briefly
describe the application. This could be
the draft for your introduction paragraph.
2. Provide a
brief outline of the topics for each of the body paragraphs.
Application Paper: Task 2
Using the work you completed in Task 1, write your
application paper, which should be 750-1,000 words.
Include the following:
1. An
introduction.
2. A minimum
of three body paragraphs each describing some aspect of the application. Make sure to include how each aspect relates
to one or more concept(s) from this course.
You may choose to include the history of the application as one
paragraph.
3. A
concluding paragraph.
4. You must
use at least two scholarly sources in addition to the textbook as references to
support your paper. Make sure to
properly cite your sources.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in
the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric
prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for
successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Week 1
assignment
Motion Exercises
Complete the Motion Exercises.
GCU style is not required, but solid academic writing is
expected.
You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
PHY-102: Motion
Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. Jane is
collecting data for a ball rolling down a hill.
She measures out a set of different distances and then proceeds to use a
stopwatch to find the time it takes the ball to roll each distance.
a. What is
the independent variable in her experiment?
b. What is
the dependent variable in her experiment?
c. Give one
control variable for her experiment.
2. Consider
an experiment where you drop an object.
a. Briefly
describe your proposed experiment. (Make sure it is controlled).
b. What
would be the independent variable for your experiment?
c. What
would be the dependent variable for your experiment?
d. Give one
control variable for your experiment.
3. Consider
a freely falling object.
a. What is
the acceleration (in m/s2) after 5 seconds of fall?
b. What is
the acceleration (in m/s2) after 10 seconds of fall?
c. What is
the velocity (in m/s) after 5 seconds of fall?
d. What is
the velocity (in m/s) of 10 seconds of fall?
4. A sign is
hung between two cables as illustrated below. If the sign weighs 350 N, what is
the tension (in N) in each cable?
5. A
construction worker on a high-rise building is on a platform suspended between
two cables as illustrated below. The construction worker weighs 850 N, the
plank weighs 450 N, and the tension in the left cable is 550 N.
a. What is
the tension (in N) in the right cable?
b. Explain
your answer.
6. Two
forces of 50 N and 30 N, respectively, are acting on an object. Find the net
force (in N) on the object if …
a. the
forces are acting in the same direction
b. the
forces are acting in opposite directions.
7. A box is
pulled straight across the floor at a constant speed. It is pulled with a horizontal force of 48 N.
a. Find the
net force (in N) on the box.
b. Find the
force of friction (in N) from the floor on the box.
c. The
person pulling on the box stops pulling and the box comes to a rest. Find the force of friction (in N) on the box
when at rest.
8. A bowling
ball rolls 32 meters in 0.8 seconds.
Find the average speed (in m/s) of the bowling ball in m/s.
9. A car
accelerates from 3.5 m/s to 17 m/s in 4.5 seconds. Find the acceleration of the car in m/s2.
10. Rank the
following from lowest to highest:
a. The
support force on you standing in an elevator at rest.
b. The
support force on you standing in an elevator accelerating upward.
c. The
support force on you standing in an elevator accelerating downward.
11. Describe
the speed and acceleration of the ball released from the top of the track shown
in the figure below.
12. Describe
the speed and acceleration of the ball released from the top of the track shown
in the figure below.
13. Describe
the speed and acceleration of the ball released from the top of the track shown
in the figure below.
14. You throw
a ball upward with a speed of 14 m/s.
What is the acceleration of the ball after it leaves your hand? Ignore air resistance and provide an
explanation for your answer.
15. How would
your answer to the previous question change if you take into account the
effects of air resistance?
16. Describe
the speed and acceleration of a person sky diving. Include in your explanation a description of
the motion before the parachute is opened as well as a description of the
motion after the parachute is opened.
17. A net
force of 24 N is acting on a 4.0-kg object.
Find the acceleration in m/s2.
18. A person
pulls horizontally with a force of 64 N on a 14-kg box. There is a force of friction between the box
and the floor of 36 N. Find the
acceleration of the box in m/s2. Show your work.
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
19. One
difference between a hypothesis and a theory is that a hypothesis
A. is a
guess that has not been well tested, whereas a theory is a synthesis of
well-tested guesses.
B. is
testable, whereas a theory is not testable.
C. can be
revised, whereas a theory cannot be revised.
D. is not
testable, whereas a theory is testable.
20. A car
starts from rest and reached a speed of 24 m/s in 6 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?
A. 144 m
B. 6 m/s2
C. 4 m/s2
D. 10 m/s2
E. 0 m/s2
21. Which of
the following forces is NOT a contact force?
A. Friction
force
B. Support
force
C. Force of
gravity
D. Tension
force
22. If you
pull horizontally on a desk with a force of 150 N and the desk doesn't move,
the friction force must be 150 N. Now if you pull with 250 N so the desk slides
at constant velocity, the friction force is
A. more than
150 N, but less than 250 N.
B. 250 N.
C. more than
250.
23. Suppose a
particle is accelerated through space by a constant 10 N force. Suddenly the
particle encounters a second force of 10 N in a direction opposite to that of
the first force. The particle
A. is
brought to a rapid halt.
B. theoretically
accelerates to speeds approaching the speed of light.
C. continues
at the speed it had when it encountered the second force.
D. gradually
slows down to a halt.
24. Newton's
First Law of Motion applies to
A. objects
at rest only.
B. moving
objects only.
C. both
moving and nonmoving objects.
25. A freely
falling object starts from rest. After falling for 2 seconds, it will have a
speed of about
A. 5 m/s
B. 10 m/s
C. 20 m/s
D. 40 m/s
26. Suppose an
object is in free fall. Each second the object falls
A. the same
distance as in the second before.
B. a larger
distance than in the second before.
C. with the
same instantaneous speed.
D. with the
same average speed.
Week 2
assignment
Complete the Energy and Circular Motion Exercises.
GCU style is not required, but solid academic writing is
expected.
You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
PHY-102: Energy and
Circular Motion Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. A rifle
with a longer barrel can fire bullets with a larger velocity than a rifle with
a shorter barrel.
a. Explain this using the impulse-momentum theorem.
b. Explain this using the work-energy theorem
2. Use
physics terms to explain the benefits of crumple zones in modern cars.
3. When a
gun is fired at the shooting range, the gun recoils (moves backward). Explain
this using the law of conservation of momentum.
4. Rank the
following in terms of increasing inertia:
A. A 10,000
kg train car at rest
B. A 100 kg
person running at 5 m/s
C. A 1200 kg
car going 15 m/s
D. A 15 kg
meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s
5. Rank the
following in terms of increasing momentum:
A. A 10,000
kg train car at rest
B. A 100 kg
person running at 5 m/s
C. A 1200 kg
car going 15 m/s
D. A 15 kg
meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s
6. Rank the
following in terms of increasing kinetic energy:
A. A 1200 kg
car going 15 m/s
B. A 10,000
kg train car at rest
C. A 15 kg
meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s
D. A 100 kg
person running at 5 m/s
7. Ben (55
kg) is standing on very slippery ice when Junior (25 kg) bumps into him. Junior was moving at a speed of 8 m/s before
the collision and Ben and Junior embrace after the collision. Find the speed of Ben and Junior as they move
across the ice after the collision. Give
the answer in m/s. Describe the work you
did to get the answer.
8. Identical
marbles are released from the same height on each of the following four
frictionless ramps.
Compare the speed of the marbles at the end of each ramp.
Explain your reasoning.
9. A force
of only 150 N can lift a 600 N sack of flour to a height of 0.50 m when using a
lever as shown in the diagram below.
a. Find the
work done on the sack of flour (in J).
b. Find the
distance you must push with the 150 N force on the left side (in m).
c. Briefly
explain the benefit of using a lever to lift a heavy object.
10. Rank the
following in terms of increasing power.
A. Doing 100
J of work in 10 seconds.
B. Doing 100
J of work in 5 seconds.
C. Doing 200
J of work in 5 seconds.
D. Doing 400
J of work in 30 seconds.
11. A student
lifts a 25 kg mass a vertical distance of 1.6 m in a time of 2.0 seconds.
a. Find the
force needed to lift the mass (in N).
b. Find the
work done by the student (in J).
c. Find the
power exerted by the student (in W).
12. A
satellite is put into an orbit at a distance from the center of the Earth equal
to twice the distance from the center of the Earth to the surface. If the
satellite had a weight at the surface of 4000 N, what is the force of gravity
(weight) of the satellite when it is in its orbit? Give your answer in newtons, N.
13. Consider a
satellite in a circular orbit around the Earth.
a. Why is it
important to give a satellite a horizontal speed when placing it in orbit?
b. What will
happen if the horizontal speed is too small?
c. What
will happen if the horizontal speed is too large?
14. If you
drop an object from a distance of 1 meter above the ground, where would it fall
to the ground in the shortest time: Atop Mt. Everest or in New York?
15. Why do the
astronauts aboard the space station appear to be weightless?
16. Why do the
passengers on a high-flying airplane not appear weightless, similar to the
astronauts on the space station?
17. A ranger
needs to capture a monkey hanging on a tree branch. The ranger aims his dart gun directly at the
monkey and fires the tranquilizer dart.
However, the monkey lets go of the branch at exactly the same time as
the ranger fires the dart. Will the
monkey get hit or will it avoid the dart?
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
18. Compared
to its weight on Earth, a 5 kg object on the moon will weigh
A. the same
amount.
B. less.
C. more.
19. Compared
to its mass on Earth, a 5 kg object on the moon will have
A. the same
mass.
B. less
mass.
C. more
mass.
20. The
reason padded dashboards are used in cars is that they
A. look nice
and feel good.
B. decrease
the impulse in a collision.
C. increase
the force of impact in a collision.
D. decrease
the momentum of a collision.
E. increase
the time of impact in a collision.
21. Suppose
you are standing on a frozen lake where there is no friction between your feet
and the ice. What can you do to get off
the lake?
A. Bend over
touching the ice in front of you and then bring you feet to your hands.
B. Walk very
slowly on tiptoe.
C. Get on
your hands and knees and crawl off the ice.
D. Throw
something in the direction opposite to the way you want to go.
22. A car
travels in a circle with constant speed. Which of the following is true?
A. The net
force on the car is zero because the car is not accelerating.
B. The net
force on the car is directed forward, in the direction of travel.
C. The net
force on the car is directed inward, toward the center of the curve.
D. The net
force on the car is directed outward, away from the center of the curve.
23. A job is
done slowly, and an identical job is done quickly. Which of the following is
true?
a. They
require the same amount of force, but different amounts of work.
b. They
require the same amount of work, but different amounts of power.
c. They
require the same amounts of power, but different amounts of work.
d. They
require the same amounts of work, but different amounts of energy.
24. How many
joules of work are done on a box when a force of 60 N pushes it 5 m in 3
seconds?
a. 300 J
b. 12 J
c. 100 J
d. 36 J
e. 4 J
25. A 1 kg
cart moving with a speed of 3 m/s collides with a 2 kg cart at rest. If the
carts stick together after the collision, with what speed will they move after
the collision?
a. 3 m/s
b. 1.5 m/s
c. 1 m/s
d. 2 m/s
Week 3
assignment
Fluid and Thermal Physics Exercises
PHY-102: Fluid and
Thermal Physics Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. Rank the
following in terms of increasing density:
A. A100 g
object with a volume of 25 cubic centimeters
B. A 200 g
object with a volume of 100 cubic centimeters
C. A 100 g
object with a volume of 100 cubic centimeters
D. A 400 g
object with a volume of 50 cubic centimeters
2. Rank the
following in terms of increasing pressure:
A. A 10 kg
object distributed on a square surface with dimensions 10 cm by 10 cm
B. A 20 kg
object distributed on a square surface with dimensions 10 cm by 10 cm
C. A 30 kg
object distributed on a square surface with dimensions 20 cm by 20 cm
D. A 40 kg
object distributed on a square surface with dimensions 30 cm by 30 cm
3. Consider
four blocks with identical volumes placed in water as shown below.
Which block has the smallest buoyant force on the water and
why?
4. Consider
four blocks with identical volumes placed in water as shown below. Rank the blocks in terms of increasing
density:
5. Consider
a tall container filled with water.
There are three holes of equal size in the side of the container as
shown on the diagram below. The red arrows indicate the velocity of the water
as it flows out of the holes.
Why is the velocity larger for the bottom stream of water?
6. On a
quiet day, the atmospheric pressure results in a force of about 10,0000 N on a
window pane with an area of 1 square meter.
a. Why does
this large force not shatter the window?
b. How will
this change if a strong wind is blowing across the window pane?
7. Explain
why locations near a large body of water generally have higher average
temperatures in the winter and lower average temperatures in the summer.
8. A mirror
cleaned with an alcohol solution is slightly colder right after it is cleaned.
Why?
9. To keep
the canned food from freezing in a storage cellar, a farmer places a tub of
water in the cellar. Explain.
10. Why is it
safe to stick your tongue on a wooden pole on a cold winter day, but not on a
metal pole?
11. You are in
the frozen food section of the grocery store and you notice that your hand gets
cold when you place it on the glass windows of the display cases. Your friend says this is because coolness is
transferred from the display case to your hand.
What do you think?
12. Why are
good conductors of electricity usually also good conductors of heat?
13. Why is it
cooler to wear a white shirt than a black shirt on a hot, sunny day?
14. On a hot
day in your hot kitchen, you decide to work with the refrigerator door open in
an attempt to have the refrigerator cool the room. Which of the following best describes the
result of this decision? Explain your
answer.
A. It will
cool the room very effectively
B. It will
cool the room, but inefficiently
C. It will
not change anything
D. It will
actually warm the room
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
15. Consider
standing on a bathroom scale. How will the reading of the scale compare if you
stand on one leg instead of two?
A. It will
show less
B. It will
show more
C. It will
show the same
16. Consider
standing on a bathroom scale. What does a bathroom scale show?
A. Mass
B. Density
C. Force
D. Pressure
17. Which has
the greater density, a lake full of water or a cup full of lake water?
A. The water
in the cup
B. The water
in the lake
C. Both have
the same density
18. The
largest extremes in temperature are usually experienced _____.
A. On
islands
B. In japan
C. In
coastal cities such as boston
D. In the
middle of the continents
E. Near the
oceans
19. The fact
that desert sand is very hot in the day and very cold at night is evidence that
sand has a _____.
A. High
specific heat
B. High
density
C. Low
specific heat
D. Low
density
20. Which of
the following has the highest specific heat?
A. Water
B. Wood
C. Rock
D. Concrete
21. What
happens to the volume of a 1 kg of water when it is heated from 0oC to 2oC?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the
same
22. What
happens to the volume of a 1 kg of water when it is heated from 4oC to 6oC?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the
same
23. Heat
transfer by conduction in metals occurs when:
A. Atoms
give off energy in the form of radiation
B. A large
number of atoms move from one place to another
C. Electrons
collide with other electrons and with atoms.
D. Electromagnetic
waves travel though space to heat up an object.
24. Heat
transfer by convection occurs when:
A. Atoms
give off energy in the form of radiation
B. A large
number of atoms move from one place to another
C. Electrons
collide with other electrons and with atoms.
D. Electromagnetic
waves travel though space to heat up an object.
25. What
produces the cooling effect inside a refrigerator?
A. A
compression making the refrigeration gas condense to a liquid.
B. An
electric motor turning electrical energy into thermal energy.
C. Excellent
insulation.
D. The
evaporation of the refrigeration liquid.
Week 4
assignment
Electricity and Magnetism Exercises
PHY-102: Electricity
and Magnetism Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. Why are
good conductors of heat also good conductors of electricity?
2. What is
the difference between a good conductor and a good insulator?
3. Which of
the following are conductors? (Select all that apply)
A. Wood
B. Copper
C. Gold
D. Plastic
E. Distilled
water
4. Which of
the following are insulators? (Select all that apply)
A. Wood
B. Copper
C. Gold
D. Plastic
E. Distilled
water
5. A nail
contains trillions of electrons. Given
that electrons repel from each other, why do they not then fly out of the nail?
6. How do
the number of electrons flowing into a light bulb compare to the number of
electrons flowing out of it?
7. A light
bulb connected to a 9-V battery has a current of 1.5 A flowing.
a. Find the
resistance of the light bulb (in ohms)
b. Find the
power drawn by the light bulb (in W)
8. Consider
three identical light bulbs connected as shown in the circuit below.
a. Which
light bulb(s) will be brightest? Explain.
b. What will
happen to B and C if light bulb A is removed? Explain.
c. What
will happen to A and B if light bulb C is removed? Explain.
9. Rank the following
from smallest current to largest current.
A. A 1200W
microwave connected to 110V outlet.
B. A 1500W
water heater connected to 220V outlet.
C. A 100W
light bulb connected to 110V outlet.
D. A 2000W
oven connected to a 220V outlet.
E. A 40W
Light bulb connected to a 12V battery.
10. Your
friend says an appliance uses energy.
How would you correct his statement?
11. Describe
the differences and similarities between an electromotor and a generator.
12. Your
friend with great excitement tells you about his newest idea to solve the
energy crisis: He wants to use an
electromotor to drive a generator and then use part of the electric power
generated to power the electromotor while using the rest to power his home. What would you tell him?
13. Why is a
paper clip attracted to a magnet, while is pencil is not?
14. A loop of
wire embedded in the road at an intersection can be used to trigger a traffic
signal. This is an application of
magnetic induction. Explain.
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
15. Two like
charges:
A. Attract
each other
B. Repel
each other
C. Must be
neutrons
D. Neutralize
each other
16. When a
plastic rod is rubbed with fur, the rod will become negatively charged. Which of the following best explains how this
happens?
A. Electrons
are transferred from the plastic rod to the fur.
B. Electrons
are transferred from the fur to the plastic rod.
C. Negative
charges are created on the plastic rod.
D. Positive
charges are removed from the plastic rod.
17. What is
characteristic of a good insulator?
A. Electrons
are usually not moving at all.
B. Electrons
are free to move around.
C. Electrons
are semi-free to move around.
D. Electrons
are tightly bound to the nuclei.
18. In a solid
conductor such as a metal, what is the cause of an electric current?
A. A flow of
positive and negative charges.
B. A flow of
positive charges only.
C. A flow of
negative charges only.
D. A flow of
protons.
E. A flow of
neutrons.
19. How does
the resistance of a 100W light bulb compare to the resistance of a 60W light
bulb?
A. The 100W
light bulb has a higher resistance than the 60W light bulb.
B. The 100W
light bulb has a lower resistance than the 60W light bulb.
C. The 100W
light bulb has the same resistance as the 60W light bulb.
D. Not
enough information to tell.
20. Consider
the five circuits in the diagram below.
In which of the circuits will the light bulb light up?
21. What
causes an electric field?
A. A moving
change only.
B. A
stationary charge only.
C. Any
charge, moving or stationary.
D. A
stationary magnet.
22. What
causes a magnetic field?
A. A moving
change only.
B. A
stationary charge only.
C. Any
charge, moving or stationary.
23. What does
a step-up transformer do?
A. It steps
up the energy.
B. It steps
up the power.
C. It steps
up the voltage.
D. It steps
up the current.
24. Which of
the following is true for a generator?
A. It
transforms thermal energy to electrical energy.
B. It
transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy.
C. It
transforms electrical energy into mechanical energy.
D. It
transforms solar energy into electrical energy.
25. Which of
the following is true for an electromotor?
A. It
transforms thermal energy to electrical energy.
B. It
transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy.
C. It
transforms electrical energy into mechanical energy.
D. It
transforms electrical energy into potential energy.
Week 5
assignment
Wave, Sound, and Light Exercises
PHY-102: Wave, Sound, and Light Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. What is
the source of all waves?
2. A water
wave vibrates up and down four times each second, the distance between two
successive crests is 5 meters, and the height from the lowest part to the
highest part of the wave is 2 meters.
a. What is
the frequency of the wave in hertz?
b. What is
the period of the wave in seconds?
c. What is
the speed of the wave in meters per seconds?
d. What is
the amplitude of the wave in meters?
3. When you
sit in the stands at a baseball stadium, you will hear the crack of the bat a
short time after you see the batter hit the ball. Explain.
4. Why is
the moon sometimes described as silent?
5. You are
hiking in a canyon and you notice an echo.
You decide to let put a yell and notice it took 2 seconds before you
heard the echo of your yell. How far
away is the canyon wall that reflected your yell?
6. Explain
how the Doppler effect is used by the police to measure the speed of a car.
7. The light
from the sun has higher frequencies from one side of the sun than from the
other side. What does that tell you
about the sun?
8. What is
the source of all electromagnetic waves?
9. Why is
the lettering on the front of an ambulance “backwards” (see figure below)?
10. What do
radio waves, microwaves, light, and x-rays have in common?
11. Rank the
following electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency.
A. Microwaves
B. Radio
waves
C. Ultraviolet
radiation
D. Visible
light
E. X-rays
F. Infrared
radiation
12. During a
lunar eclipse the moon is in the shadow of the Earth. Why does the moon have a faint red color
during the eclipse?
13. The
distance from the sun to the Earth is 1.5 x 1011 m. How long does it take for light from the sun
to reach the earth? Give your answer in
seconds.
14. Why are
polarized sunglasses particularly effective in reducing glare?
15. Match the
following colored objects with the way in which the colors are produced.
1) Red rose
2) Rainbow
3) Oil film
4) Peacock
feather
5) Blue sky
A. Scattering
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Interference
E. Selective
reflection
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
16. If the
frequency of a vibration is doubled, what happens to the period?
A. The
period is doubled.
B. The
period remains the same.
C. The
period is reduced to one-quarter.
D. The
period is reduced to one-half
E. The
period is quadrupled.
17. What is
the distance between two successive crests on a transverse wave called?
A. Wavelength
B. Period
C. Amplitude
D. Frequency
E. Compression
18. Noise-cancelling
earphones use which of the following phenomena?
A. Frequency
B. Constructive
interference
C. Destructive
interference
D. Resonance
E. Beats
19. If the sun
were to suddenly "turn off’, we would not know about it for about 8
minutes. Why?
A. It would
take about 8 minutes to realize what happened because of the darkness.
B. It takes
about 8 minutes for the sun to "power down".
C. It takes
about 8 minutes for Earth to spin around so we can see the sun.
D. It takes
about 8 minutes for the light to travel from the sun to Earth.
20. If the
atmosphere was much thicker than it is now, how would the sun appear?
A. The sun
would appear the same.
B. The sun
would appear blue-violet.
C. The sun
would appear green-blue.
D. The sun
would appear red-orange.
E. The sun
would appear yellow-green.
21. If you dip
your finger in a tub of water at a constant rate, concentric circular waves
with a constant spacing (wavelength) will form.
If you double the frequency at which you dip your finger, what will
happen to the wavelength?
A. The
wavelength is reduced to one-quarter.
B. The
wavelength is reduced to one-half.
C. The
wavelength is quadrupled.
D. The
wavelength is doubled.
E. The
wavelength remains the same.
22. If you
hear the clap of a thunder 5 seconds after seeing the flash of lightning, how
far away from you did the lightning strike?
A. About 5
miles
B. About 5
kilometers
C. About 1
mile
D. About 1
kilometer
23. What are
the three paint colors used for color subtraction?
A. Red,
yellow, and blue
B. Red,
green, and blue
C. Orange,
purple, and green
D. Magenta,
green, and yellow
E. Magenta,
cyan, and yellow
24. If you
shine a beam of red light and a beam of green light on the same area of a
screen, what color will you see on the screen?
A. Red
B. Green
C. White
D. Yellow
E. Cyan
F. Magenta
25. If you mix
equal amounts of cyan pigments and magenta pigments on a sheet of white paper,
what color will you see on the paper?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Black
D. Yellow
E. Cyan
F. Magenta
Week 6
assignment
Atomic and Nuclear Physics Exercises
PHY-102: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. Rank the
following in order of increased size?
A. Proton
B. Nucleus
C. Electron
D. Atom
2. Match the
following terms:
1. Mass
number
2. Isotopes
3. Nitrogen
4. Atomic number
A. The
number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
B. The
number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
C. The name
of the element with atomic number 7.
D. Atoms
with the same number of protons, but different number of neutrons.
3. Your
friend says your body is made up of more than 99.9999% empty space. What do you think?
4. An
isotope has 46 electrons, 60 neutrons, and 46 protons. Name the isotope.
5. Find the
approximate atomic mass of a water molecule (H2O). Give your answer in atomic mass units rounded
to the nearest whole number.
6. Find the
approximate atomic mass of carbon dioxide.
Give your answer in atomic mass units rounded to the nearest whole
number.
7. Consider
chlorine-37.
a. How many
protons are there in the nucleus of Cl-37?
b. How many
neutrons are there in the nucleus of Cl-37?
8. Why is it
impossible to see an individual atom in an optical microscope?
9. Compare
alpha, beta, and gamma radiation.
10. Your
friend says the helium in your birthday helium balloon comes from radioactive
decays. What is your response?
11. Radium-214
decays in an alpha decay.
a. What is
the mass number of the daughter isotope?
b. What is
the atomic number of the daughter isotope?
c. What
element is the daughter product?
12. Iodine-131
has a half-life of 8 days. How many days
will it take before 32mg of Iodine-131 has decayed to 1mg?
13. Carbon-14
has a half-life of 5,730 years. If an
archaeological sample has only one-fourth of the radioactivity of a similar
sample from today, how old is the archaeological sample? Give your answer in
years.
14. Can the
Carbon-14 isotope be used to date a stone tablet? Explain your answer.
15. Is it
feasible to make a car engine powered by nuclear fission? How can energy from nuclear fission be used
to power cars indirectly?
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
16. Consider
an atom. Which contributes most to the
size of the atom?
A. The
electrons
B. The
neutrons
C. The
protons
D. Both the
neutrons and the protons
17. Consider
an atom. Which contributes most to the
mass of the atom?
A. The
electrons
B. The
neutrons
C. The
protons
D. Both the
neutrons and the protons
18. What is
the name of the center of the atom?
A. Nucleus
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Electrons
E. Ions
19. What makes
an element distinct?
A. The
number of electrons
B. The
number of neutrons
C. The
number of protons
D. The
number of ions
E. The
number of nucleons
20. What is
different between two isotopes of the same element?
A. The
number of electrons
B. The
number of neutrons
C. The
number of protons
D. The
number of ions
E. The
number of nucleons
21. When does
a nuclear fission reaction occur?
A. When a
nucleus is cut in two using a really sharp knife.
B. When two
nuclei collide and combine to one.
C. When a
large nucleus spontaneously is divided for no apparent reason.
D. When the
electric forces within the nucleus are stronger than the nuclear forces.
22. Which
processes release the energy in the sun?
A. Combustion
reactions
B. Gravitational
forces
C. Fusion
processes
D. Fission
processes
E. Electrical
discharges
23. Which
processes release the energy in the nuclear reactors used in power plants?
A. Combustion
reactions
B. Gravitational
forces
C. Fusion
processes
D. Fission
processes
E. Electrical
discharges
24. Where does
the energy released in nuclear reactions come from?
A. The mass
of the fuel
B. Water
C. The sun
D. The Earth
Week 7
assignment
Chemistry Exercises
PHY-102: Chemistry Exercises
Complete the following exercises.
1. Which of
the following are physical properties? (Select all that apply)
A. Color
B. Hardness
C. Density
D. Flammability
E. Conductivity
F. Reactivity
with other materials
2. Which of
the following describe a physical change? (Select all that apply)
A. Photosynthesis
B. Evaporation
of alcohol when a table is wiped with an
alcohol swab
C. Burning
of firewood
D. Rusting
of iron
E. Breaking
a glass
F. Melting
ice
3. Which of
the following are chemical properties? (Select all that apply)
A. Texture
B. Toxicity
C. Conductivity
D. Density
E. Flammability
F. Reactivity
with other materials
4. Which of
the following describe a chemical change? (Select all that apply)
A. Melting
of ice
B. Evaporation
of alcohol when a table is wiped with an
alcohol swab
C. Burning
of firewood
D. Rusting
of iron
E. Breaking
a glass
F. Cooking
an egg
5. Match the
following substances with the best classification:
1. Magnesium
2. Salt
water
3. Blood
4. Carbon
dioxide
5. Soil
sample
A. Compound
B. Element
C. Solution
D. Heterogeneous
mixture
E. Suspension
6. Which of
the following illustrations best illustrate an element, a compound, and a
mixture. Provide an explanation for your choices.
.
7. Describe
a method to separate the substances in a solution.
8. Distinguish
between a saturated and an unsaturated solution.
9. Match the
following:
1. Sodium
chloride, NaCl
2. Oxygen,
O2
3. Methane,
CH4
4. Lithium
5. Air
A. Element
B. Solution
C. Diatomic
gas
D. Ionic
compound
E. Covalent
compound
10. Electron
dot diagrams are a way to illustrate the number of valence electrons for an
element. The symbol for the element is surrounded by a dot for each valence
electron. Match the following electron
dot diagrams with an element:
1. Electron
dot diagram #1
2. Electron
dot diagram #2
3. Electron
dot diagram #3
4. Electron
dot diagram #4
A. Sodium,
Na
B. Aluminum,
Al
C. Flourine,
F
D. Nitrogen,
N
11. For the
following questions consider a compound of calcium and chlorine.
a. What type
of bond do calcium and chlorine form?
b. Describe
how this bond forms.
c. What is
the chemical formula for the compound?
Explain.
12. For the
following questions consider a water molecule, H2O.
a. What type
of bond is formed between the oxygen and the hydrogen atoms?
b. Describe
how these bonds form.
c. Explain
why there are two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.
13. For the
following questions consider a piece of copper wire.
a. What type
of bond is formed between the copper atoms?
b. Describe
how these bonds form.
c. Explain
why copper is a good electrical conductor.
14. Explain
why food stays fresh longer when kept in the refrigerator.
15. In the
stratospheric level of the atmosphere there is a high level of ozone, O3. This ozone absorbs much of the ultraviolet
light from the sun and thus protects life in the surface of the Earth from
harmful high level of ultraviolet radiation.
Explain why one chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) molecule in the ozone layer is
capable of breaking down hundreds and even thousands of ozone molecules?
16. Balance
the following chemical reaction by placing the proper coefficients in front of
each reactant and in front of the product.
a. What is
the coefficient on line (a)?
b. What is
the coefficient on line (b)?
c. What is
the coefficient on line (c)?
17. Acetylene
gas (C2H2) burns in the oxyacetylene torch for welding. Balance the chemical
reaction by placing the proper coefficients in front of each reactant and each
product.
a. What is
the coefficient on line (a)?
b. What is
the coefficient on line (b)?
c. What is
the coefficient on line (c)?
d. What is
the coefficient on line (c)?
The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions:
18. What is a
substance made up of only one type of atom called?
A. An
element
B. A mixture
C. A
solution
D. A
compound
E. A nucleus
19. Which of
the following is a solution?
A. Table
salt
B. Nitrogen
C. A vinegar
and oil salad dressing
D. Copper
wire
E. A 14
karat gold ring
20. Which of
the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
A. Table
salt
B. Air
C. A vinegar
and oil salad dressing
D. Steel
E. A 14
karat gold ring
21. On a
container of chicken broth you notice the instructions to “shake well before
serving.” Which of the following best
describes the chicken broth?
A. A
solution
B. An
element
C. A
compound
D. A
suspension
E. A pure
substance
22. The
formation of an ionic bond involves:
A. A
transfer of electrons
B. A
transfer of protons
C. A
transfer of neutrons
D. A sharing
of electrons
E. A sharing
of protons
23. Which of
the following is the chemical formula for the ionic compound magnesium nitride?
A. MgN
B. Mg2N
C. Mg2N3
D. Mg3N2
E. MgN2
24. Which of
the following is correct about a molecule of carbon trichloride?
A. It has
one carbon atom for each chloride atom.
B. It has
three chloride atoms for each carbon atom.
C. It has
three carbon atoms for each chloride atom.
D. It is a
mixture of equal parts carbon and trichloride.
E. It is a
solution of carbon in chlorine.
25. What is
the term for the substances that undergo a change in a chemical reaction?
A. Solutions
B. Products
C. Solvents
D. Catalysts
E. Reactants
26. When
methane (CH4) burns it combines with oxygen and forms carbon dioxide and
water. Which of the following is the
balanced chemical reaction for the burning of methane?
A. CH4 +
O2 ?
CO2 + H2O
B. 3 CH4 + 6
O2 ? 3 CO2 + 6 H2O
C. 2 CH4 + 3
O2 ?
CO2 + 4 H2O
D. CH4 + 3
O2 ?
2 CO2 + 2 H2O
E. CH4 + 2
O2 ?
CO2 + 2 H2O
Week 7
assignment
Application Paper Task 2
Using the work you completed in Task 1, and referring to
Task 2 in "Application Paper Guidelines," write your application
paper, which should be 750-1,000 words.
Include the following:
An introduction.
A minimum of three body paragraphs, each describing some
aspect of the application. Make sure to include how each aspect relates to one
or more concepts from this course. You may choose to include the history of the
application as one paragraph.
A concluding paragraph.
You must use at least two scholarly sources in addition to
the textbook as references to support your paper. Make sure to properly cite
your sources.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in
the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric
prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for
successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
