Week 3 Quiz
Question 1A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an)
a.acute disease
b.multiorgan disorder
c.syndrome
d.manifestation
Question 2A medical history should include all
1. legally prescribed drugs.
2. vitamin or mineral supplements.
3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items).
4. herbal treatments.
a.1 only
b.1, 3
c.1, 2, 4
d.1, 2, 3, 4
Question 3A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as
a.hypertrophy
b.metaplasia
c.anaplasia
d.atrophy
Question 4Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by
a.blocking normal nerve conduction
b.increasing the permeability of nerve membranes
c.blocking movement of calcium ions
d.decreasing phosphate ion levels
Question 5An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to
a.increased PCO2
b.decreased PCO2
c.respiratory acidosis
d.metabolic acidosis
Question 6Cassandra is a 43 y.o. female who presents complaining of swelling in her feet and that her feet and legs hurt. Cassandra states that she has had “some” swelling for a year or so but this has really gotten worse in the past 2 weeks. Which of the following statements are most true?
a. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure occurs when a patient is hypertensive and prevents the return of fluid from the interstitial compartment to the venous end of the capillary
b. Edema can occur due to loss of plasma proteins, particularly albumin, which results in decreased osmotic pressure.
c. Obstruction of lymphatic circulation can cause edema
d. Increased capillary permeability usually results from an inflammatory or infection response and can cause localized edema
a.a, b, c
b.a, c, d
c.a, b
d.a, b, c, d
Question 7Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone
a.Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
b.Increased activation of vitamin D
c.Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
d.Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
Question 8Chose the best definition of Proto-oncogenes (select one):
a.lead to abnormal tumor suppressor genes
b.result from several mutational events
c.are the same as oncogenes
d.are normal cellular genes that promote growth
Question 9Eleanor is a 77 y.o. female who lives alone. She was admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 102F, BP 136/80, Pulse 99, RR 20, Sat 91%. Eleanor has a hx of COPD, CAD, and IDDM. Answer the following questions:
Eleanor lives alone and is 5’3” tall and weighs 225#’s. The picture below was taken of her feet after she was admitted. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about Eleanor’s situation?
a.This picture demonstrates an example of fat necrosis that can occur in individuals who have CAD
b.This picture demonstrates the prodromal period of an individual with IDDM
c.This picture demonstrates someone who could benefit from primary prevention information relating to Diabetes Mellitus
d.This picture demonstrates an example of dry gangrene that refers to necrotic tissues and is often infected
Question 10Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy leads to increased risk of
a.premature birth
b.respiratory problems
c.sudden infant death syndrome
d.A, B, and C
Week 5 Quiz
Question 1A bacterial endospore can
a.also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium
b.exist in latent form inside a host cell
c.reproduce very rapidly
d.survive high temperatures and a dry environment
Question 2A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is
a.Castleman disease
b.hyperlymphatic disease
c.hypolymphatic disease
d.Ann Arbor disease
Question 3A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
a.A dry environment
b.An acidic medium
c.Air at a temperature less than 61°F/16°C
d.The absence of oxygen
Question 4All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing except
a.Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover
b.Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue
c.Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis
d.Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis
Question 5An autoimmune disease is
a.excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material
b.an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment
c.an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs
d.failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself
Question 6Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called
a.bacilli
b.diplococci
c.staphylococci
d.streptococci
Question 7Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include
a.inflammation in multiple organs
b.lack of a specific diagnostic blood test
c.acute onset and nonprogressive course
d.Finding a chronic allergic condition
Question 8Drugs that have antiinflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include
1. COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs).
2. glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone).
3. ibuprofen (NSAID).
4. acetaminophen.
5. aspirin (ASA).
a.1, 2
b.2, 4
c.1, 3, 5
d.1, 4, 5
Question 9Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?
a.Agglutination
b.Double immunodiffusion test
c.Western blot test
d.Sedimentation rate test
Question 10Host-versus-graft disease refers to
a.hyperacute rejection of tissue
b.T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells
c.infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy
d.transplant rejection by the recipient’s immune system
Week 7 Quiz
Question 1A dissecting aortic aneurysm develops as
a.a dilation or bulge that develops at one point on the aortic wall
b.a thrombus that accumulates at a point in the aortic wall
c.a section of the aorta that weakens and dilates in all directions
d.a tear in the intimal lining, which allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall
Question 2A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is
a.leading a sedentary lifestyle
b.being female and older than 40 years of age
c.excluding saturated fats from the diet
d.familial hypercholesterolemia
Question 3An incompetent mitral valve would cause
a.increased blood to remain in the right atrium
b.hypertrophy of the right ventricle
c.decreased output from the left ventricle
d.decreased pressure in the left atrium
Question 4Approximately what percentage of bound oxygen is released to the cells for metabolism during an erythrocyte’s journey through the circulatory system?
a.80%
b.25%
c.10%
d.50%
Question 5Atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries is likely to cause which of the following?
1. Gangrenous ulcers in the legs
2. Strong rapid pulses in the legs
3. Intermittent claudication
4. 4. Red, swollen legs
a.1, 2
b.1, 3
c.2, 3
d.2, 4
Question 6Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood
a.as dissolved gas
b.attached to the iron molecule in hemoglobin
c.as bicarbonate ion
d.as carbonic acid
Question 7Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking
a.reduces vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance
b.decreases serum lipid levels
c.promotes platelet adhesion
d.increases serum HDL levels
Question 8Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a/an
a.X-linked recessive gene
b.autosomal recessive gene
c.autosomal dominant gene
d.chromosomal defect
Question 9Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the AV node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called
a.first-degree block
b.second-degree block
c.bundle-branch block
d.total heart block
Question 10Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from
1. glycogenesis.
2. bronchodilation.
3. vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4. decreased metabolic rate.
a.1, 2
b.2, 3
c.2, 4
d.3, 4
Week 10 Quiz
Question 1A chancre is best described as
a.a vesicle surrounded by a red inflamed area
b.a pustule filled with purulent exudate
c.an area of necrosis and fibrosis
d.a firm painless ulcerated nodule
Question 2Agenesis is often not diagnosed because
a.the kidney is displaced from its normal position
b.it is a genetic defect and asymptomatic until mid-life
c.the two functioning kidneys are fused together
d.it is usually asymptomatic as one kidney provides adequate function
Question 3Autoregulation in the kidneys refers to
a.control of blood flow by the SNS
b.the secretion of renin and activation of angiotensin
c.local minor reflex adjustments in the arterioles to maintain normal blood flow
d.the control of systemic blood pressure by the kidneys
Question 4Circulatory shock causes
a.decreased GFR and increased renin secretion
b.increased ADH and decreased aldosterone secretion
c.immediate tubule necrosis and obstruction
d.sympathetic nervous system (SNS) stimulation and vasodilation of afferent and efferent arterioles
Question 5Cystitis is more common in females because
a.the mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous
b.the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora
c.the pH of urine is more acidic in females
d.females have a higher incidence of congenital anomalies
Question 6From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed
a.Albumin
b.Urea
c.Sodium
d.Creatinine
Question 7How do testicular tumors usually present?
a.Soft, tender mass
b.Multiple firm nodules
c.Hard, painless unilateral mass
d.Small, fluid-filled cyst
Question 8In acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, the inflammation causes
a.increased permeability of the glomerular capillaries
b.glomerular congestion and decreased GFR
c.decreased blood pressure and edema
d.A and B
Question 9Infertility in women may result from
a.endometriosis
b.hormonal imbalance
c.A and B
d.neither A nor B
Question 10Kara is a 24 y.o. female who presents to your office for her yearly physical. She denies any complaints or concerns. Her BMI is 29 which is an increase of 2 points from the previous year. She has a McDonald’s milkshake with her today and she apologizes for her “bad breath” stating that she just had a Big Mac on her way to the appointment. In her purse, you also notice a candy bar and a small bag of chips. During your appointment with Kara, which of the following is not considered a psychological mechanism of food addiction?
a.Kara responds differently to dopamine agonist
b.Kara unknowingly presents with a food bias when entering a restaurant
c.Kara has problems controlling cravings and impulsivity when making food choices
d.Kara eats not only to maintain homeostasis but to obtain pleasure or regulate her emotions
Week 12 Quiz
Question 1A common illness for tourists in developing countries is “traveler’s diarrhea,” often caused by
a.Salmonella
b.Shigella
c.E. coli
d.Listeria
Question 2A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called
a.temporary maternal diabetes
b.fetal diabetes
c.acute developmental diabetes
d.gestational diabetes
Question 3A “gluten-free diet as required” for the client with celiac disease means avoiding
a.products containing lactose
b.any trans-fat
c.certain grains
d.proteins containing certain amino acids
Question 4An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?
a.Perforation
b.Obstruction
c.Erosion of a large blood vessel
d.Development of malignancy
Question 5Characteristics of Cushing syndrome include all of the following except
a.heavy body and round face
b.atrophied skeletal muscle in the limbs
c.staring eyes with infrequent blinking
d.atrophy of the lymph nodes
Question 6Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as
a.cataracts
b.macular degeneration
c.myopia
d.strabismus
Question 7Differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes include which of the following?
a.Type 1 diabetes weight gain is common, and type 2 weight loss often occurs
b.Type 1 diabetes leads to fewer complications than does type 2 diabetes
c.Type 1 diabetes may be controlled by adjusting dietary intake and exercise, but type 2 diabetes requires insulin replacement
d.Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and type 2 diabetes occurs more often in adults
Question 8During the development of hyperthermia, the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when
a.body core temperature is very high
b.skeletal muscle spasms occur
c.hypovolemia and fainting occur
d.the cool-down process is too rapid
Question 9Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means
a.thirst
b.increased urine output
c.hunger
d.glucose in the urine
Question 10Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves
a.periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus
b.constant flow of intestinal and gastric contents into the esophagus
c.spasmodic and violent vomiting of gastric contents
d.violent spasming of the esophagus, causing choking
Week 14 Quiz
Question 1A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an
a.intracranial headache
b.intrameningeal headache
c.migraine headache
d.cerebral headache
Question 2All of the following apply to CVA except
a.the common cause is an atheroma with thrombus
b.maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset
c.warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery
d.increasing neurological deficits usually develop during the first few days
Question 3All of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate except
a.enlarged head with bulging fontanels
b.vomiting, headache, and paralysis
c.irritability and feeding difficulties
d.eyes turned downward with sclerae showing above the pupils
Question 4An epidural hematoma is located between the
a.dura mater and the arachnoid mater
b.dura mater and the skull
c.arachnoid mater and the pia mater
d.pia mater and the brain
Question 5Brain stem tumors do not manifest signs until they are quite large
a.Surrounding inflammation stimulates neurons to discharge spontaneously
b.Malignant tumors cause alkalosis, exciting the CNS
c.Systemic effects of the brain tumor may cause seizures
d.Metabolic effects of cancer change blood chemistry to trigger seizures
Question 6Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by
a.inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait
b.infection in the brain by HIV
c.an autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors
d.infection in the brain by a prion
Question 7Following an injury at L2 to L3, what would indicate recovery from spinal shock?
a.Spastic paraplegia
b.Urinary retention
c.Labile body temperature
d.Increased sensation in the legs
Question 8How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
a.Prenatally by ultrasound or detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
b.Only after birth by direct observation of the sac
c.After birth when the sac herniates as CSF builds up
d.Only with a spinal x-ray
Question 9In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form?
a.In the pia mater, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain
b.In the dura mater and epidural space
c.At the site of the injury or entry point of the microbes
d.Primarily around the spinal cord
Question 10In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurological function return?
1. Presence of collateral circulation
2. Immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion
3. Reduced inflammation in the area
4. Development of alternative neuronal pathways
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1, 3
d.2, 3, 4
e.1, 2, 3, 4
Week 15 Quiz
Question 1A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an
a.electromyogram
b.arthroscopy
c.radiograph
d.electroencephalograph
Question 2A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because
a.bleeding occurs under the burn surface
b.the heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn
c.fluid and protein shift out of the blood
d.vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area
Question 3A sprain is a tear in a
a.ligament
b.tendon
c.skeletal muscle
d.meniscus
Question 4Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the
a.sweat glands of the upper body
b.dermis and epidermis of the skin
c.apocrine glands
d.sebaceous glands and hair follicles
Question 5All of the following predispose to osteoporosis except
a.weight-bearing activity
b.a sedentary lifestyle
c.long-term intake of glucocorticoids
d.calcium deficit
Question 6An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is
a.lordosis
b.juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
c.osteomyelitis
d.metabolic syndrome
Question 7Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following except
a.hereditary factors
b.disease requiring certain prescription drugs
c.easy access to many kinds of drugs
d.increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress
e.increased work productivity
Question 8Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo
a.Large, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
b.Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
c.Red, swollen, painful areas often with projecting red streaks
d.Firm, raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Question 9Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following except
a.cirrhosis
b.mental confusion
c.loss of motor coordination
d.altered personality and amnesia
e.respiratory failure
Question 10Ewing sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the
a.brain
b.liver
c.lungs
d.other bones
