NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 3 Quiz
Question 1To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a.Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b.Ischemic damage to cells
c.Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d.Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
Question 2When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as ________.
a.atrophy
b.liquefactive necrosis
c.apoptosis
d.infarction
Question 3 Eleanor is a 77-year-old female who lives alone. She was admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 102F, BP 136/80, Pulse 99, RR 20, Sat 91%. Eleanor has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD., coronary arterial disease (CAD., and insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM.. Eleanor is 5’3” tall and weighs 225 pounds. The following picture was taken of her feet after she was admitted.
image of the bottom of feet showing two black toes
Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about Eleanor’s situation?
a.This picture demonstrates an example of fat necrosis that can occur in individuals who have CAD.
b.This picture demonstrates the prodromal period of an individual with IDDM.
c.This picture demonstrates someone who could benefit from primary prevention information relating to diabetes mellitus.
d.This picture demonstrates an example of dry gangrene that refers to necrotic tissue that is often infected.
Question 4What is the difference between patient “signs” and “symptoms”?
a.There is no difference. These terms can be used interchangeably.
b.Symptoms are objective findings that the provider observes; signs are subjective findings that are experienced by the patient.
c.They are not related to an underlying disease process.
d.Signs are objective findings that the provider observes; symptoms are subjective findings that are experienced by the patient.
Question 5You are seeing Ms. Richman for an acute visit. During the physical examination, you notice she has some edema in her lower extremities. What section of the SOAP note would the edema be documented in?
a.Subjective
b.Objective
c.Assessment
d.Plan
Question 6The term?disease?refers to________.
a.the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state
b.a deviation from the normal state of health and function
c.the treatment measures used to promote recovery
d.a basic collection of signs and symptoms
Question 7A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an.________.
a.acute disease
b.multiorgan disorder
c.syndrome
d.manifestation
Question 8Which of the following is considered a systemic indicator of disease?
a.Swelling of the knee
b.Fever
c.Pain in the location of an injury
d.None of the above
Question 9What is the slowest but most effective system for acid-base balance?
a.Respiratory system
b.Buffer systems in the blood
c.Renal system
d.Neurologic system
Question 10In normal capillary exchange, what is net hydrostatic pressure based on?
a.The difference between the hydrostatic pressures within the capillary, as compared with the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid
b.The relative osmotic pressures in the blood and the interstitial fluid
c.The difference between the hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure within the capillary
d.The difference between the concentrations of blood cells, plasma proteins, and dissolved substances in the blood and the interstitial fluid
NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 5 Quiz
Question 1Which of the following statements regarding fever are true? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Fevers can be caused by bacterial and viral infections.
b.It is caused by a signal to the thalamus.
c.It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.
d.There is a protective mechanism involved with fever, even though it causes undesirable symptoms.
Question 2The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to ________.
a.phagocytosis of foreign material
b.formation of purulent exudates
c.any tissue injury
d.none of the above
Question 3Which of the following mediators is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response?
a.Bradykinin
b.Histamine
c.Leukotrienes
d.Chemotactic factors
Question 4Which of the following explanations ly denotes the proper sequence in the healing process?
a.A blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels develop; phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar.
b.A blood clot forms; phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar.
c.Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; angiogenesis takes place; and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes.
d.Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.
Question 5Which term describes replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells?
a.Fibrosis
b.Regeneration
c.Resolution
d.Repair by scar tissue
Question 6You are working with a patient in urgent care who requires sutures to close a wound. She asks why this is necessary. Which of the following factors that promotes rapid healing is most appropriate to use in your explanation to her?
a.Closely approximated edges of a wound
b.Absence of foreign material.
c.Exposure to radiation
d.Vasoconstriction in the involved area
Question 7Which of the following are the desired outcomes of the inflammatory process as it functions to return the body to a more homeostatic state? Select all that apply.
a.Systemic inflammation
b.*Prevent spread of infection
c.Increase white blood cells (WBCs) to the area of injury
d.Prepare the area of injury for healing
e.Decrease capillary permeability
Question 8Mr. A has been brought into the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident (MVA). He is a 78-year-old male, and he was driving at the time of the collision. He was wearing his seatbelt, and the windows did shatter. The air bag deployed, and he cannot remember if he hit his head. There is a small burn mark on his arm, but he was smoking a cigarette at the time of the accident. He has multiple visible injuries and is being evaluated for internal injuries.
Given his injuries, there is likely a significant inflammatory response occurring. Which of the following indicates a local inflammatory response? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Redness
b.Swelling
c.Warmth
d.Fever
e.Decreased pulses
Question 9Which of the following are advantages of using a biosynthetic skin substitute on a large area of full thickness burns?
1. Reduced risk of infection
2. Developing stronger fibrous scar tissue
3. More rapid healing
4. Regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles
a.1, 4
b.3, 4
c.1, 3
d.2, 3
Question 10When a patient has significant burns to their body, you may begin to see major changes in many different body functions within ________.
a.the first few minutes
b.the first few hours
c.the first few days
d.the first few weeks
NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 8 Quiz
Question 1Which pathological process is the main causative factor for the signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera?
a.A decreased erythrocyte count
b.Destruction of erythrocytes
c.Increased blood viscosity
d.Neurologic involvement
Question 2Which of the following are predisposing factors to leukemia? Select all that apply.
a.Exposure to radiation
b.Certain fungal and protozoal infections
c.Familial tendency
d.Cigarette smoking
Question 3Which statement best describes the basic pathophysiology of thalassemia?
a.Several amino acids in the globin chains have been replaced by substitute amino acids.
b.More than four globin chains are found in the erythrocytes.
c.The iron molecule is displaced in hemoglobin.
d.There is failure to synthesize either the alpha or beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule.
Question 4Mr. A has fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea. His conjunctiva and palms are pale. His nails appear brittle, thin, and concave, and he has sores at the corners of his mouth. He reports a very poor diet as of late. Based on this information, which type of anemia are you most suspicious for?
a.Pernicious
b.Iron deficiency
c.Aplastic
d.Hemolytic
Question 5Which of the following anemias can result from a malabsorption problem?
a.Aplastic anemia
b.Sickle cell anemia
c.Thalassemia major
d.Pernicious anemia
Question 6Mr. J has cheilosis, stomatitis, and painful ulceration of the buccal mucosa and mouth. He complains of dysphagia and watery diarrhea. Based on these symptoms, what type of anemia are you most suspicious of?
a.Pernicious anemia
b.Folate deficiency anemia
c.Anemia of chronic disease
d.Iron deficiency anemia
Question 7What is the etiology of Von Willebrand disease?
a.Defective erythrocytes that become deformed in shape, causing occlusions
b.Excessive lymphocytes that do not mature
c.Absence of a clotting factor that helps platelets clump and stick
d.A lack of hemoglobin due to iron deficiency
Question 8Which of the following statements is true regarding hemophilia A?
a.It is transmitted as an X-linked dominant trait.
b. There is usually a total lack of factor VIII in the blood.
c.Males and females can be carriers.
d.Hematomas and hemarthroses are common.
Question 9Petechiae and purpura are common signs of ________.
a.excessive hemolysis
b.leucopenia
c.increased bleeding
d.hemoglobin deficit
Question 10In patients with acute leukemia, the increased number of malignant leukocytes can cause which of the following signs and symptoms?
1. Decreased hemoglobin
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Bone pain with increased activity
4. Splenomegaly
a.1, 3
b.1, 2, 4
c.2, 3, 4,
d.1, 2, 3, 4
NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 10 Quiz
Question 1
Which of the following conditions are required for a patient to be declared a “brain death”? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.No activity on EEG
b.Absence of all reflexes
c.No spontaneous respirations
d.Presence of any head injury
Question 2Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
a.Between the double layers of the dura mater
b.In the subdural space
c.In the subarachnoid space
d.Through the arachnoid villi
Question 3Which of the following is a true statement about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)?
a.They usually cause necrosis and permanent brain damage.
b.They may be caused by rupture of an aneurysm or a damaged artery.
c.They usually indicate systemic hypotension.
d.They can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents (CVA).
Question 4Which of the following factors predispose an individual to a CVA? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Hypertension
b.Smoking cigarettes
c.History of coronary artery disease
d.Diabetes mellitus
e.BMI less than 18
Question 5Which type of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has the poorest prognosis?
a.CVA caused by thrombus
b.Hemorrhagic CVA
c.Embolic CVA
d.No difference among types
Question 6All of the following statements are true regarding cerebrovascular accidents EXCEPT ________.
a.the common cause is an atheroma with thrombus
b.maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset
c.warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery
d.increasing neurological deficits usually develop during the first few days
Question 7As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the ________.
a.optic nerve
b.peripheral nervous system (PNS) fibers in cranial nerve III
c.sympathetic nervous system (SNS) nerve to the eye
d.occipital lobe
Question 8What changes in blood pressure do you expect to observe in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
a.Erratic diastolic pressure
b.Decreasing systolic pressure
c.Systolic and diastolic pressures decreasing proportionately
d.Increasing pulse pressure
Question 9What determines which signs and symptoms of a stroke that a patient presents with?
a.Location of obstruction, size of artery, and area affected
b.Duration of the blockage, distance from the heart, and type of obstruction
c.Health of the victim, area affected, and collateral circulation
d.Size of the obstruction, condition of the heart, and duration of blockage
Question 10What changes would you expect to find in the brain of a patient with Alzheimer disease?
a.Cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction
b.Increased acetylcholine (ACh) and decreased GABA and serotonin levels
c.Obstruction of many small arteries and arterioles throughout the cerebral cortex
d.Vacuoles forming in the neurons, rapidly destroying them
NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 12 Quiz
Question 1Which of the following is not a normal finding on urinalysis? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.pH of 5.0
b.Specific gravity of 1.025
c.Gross hematuria
d.Significant protein
e.pH of 8.5
Question 2Which of the statements about the bladder is true?
a.The bladder wall lacks rugae.
b.Three openings from the urinary bladder form the trigone.
c.It contracts when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
d.Continuous peristalsis in the bladder wall promotes urine flow.
Question 3Which statement accurately describes how blood flows through the kidney?
a.Afferent arteriole to the peritubular capillaries to the cortex
b.Efferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the peritubular capillaries
c.Peritubular arteries to the glomerular capillaries to the venule
d.Afferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the efferent arteriole
Question 4An APRN can expect glomerular filtration rate to increase in a patient that experiences which of the following conditions?
a.Increased plasma osmotic pressure
b.Dilation of the efferent arteriole
c.Increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
d.Constriction of the afferent arteriole
Question 5If a patient has influenza and high fever, how would the kidney tubules compensate to help maintain normal pH of body fluids?
a.Increase the flow of filtrate and urine.
b.Secrete more acids and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions.
c.Excrete a larger volume of more dilute urine.
d.Retain more chloride ions in exchange for sodium ions.
Question 6Which of the following is the most specific indicator of renal insufficiency?
a.Urine with pH of 5
b.Increased serum urea and creatinine
c.Urine with high specific gravity
d.Decreased blood pressure
Question 7Which of the following signs and/or symptoms indicate a decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
a.Increased serum urea and decreased serum bicarbonate
b.Urine with low specific gravity and dark color
c.Albuminuria and hematuria
d.Hyponatremia and hypokalemia
Question 8What is the common initial sign of adenocarcinoma of the kidney that should be evaluated promptly?
a.Gross hematuria
b.Microscopic hematuria
c.Sharp flank pain
d.Polyuria
Question 9Which of the following explains why metabolic acidosis develops with bilateral kidney disease?
a.Tubule exchanges are impaired.
b.GFR is increased.
c.Serum urea is increased.
d.More bicarbonate ion is produced.
Question 10Which of the following would be most likely to cause chronic renal failure?
a.Cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney
b.Circulatory shock due to myocardial infarction
c.Diabetes
d.Obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus
NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 14 Quiz
Question 1A father affected with hemophilia A, whose partner is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to
Select one:
a.all of his sons, who will be affected.
b.50% of his sons, who will be carriers.
c.all of his daughters, who will be carriers.
d.50% of his daughters, who will be affected.
Question 2All of the following can result in developmental disorders except:
Select one:
a.hypoxia and ischemia to the brain.
b.mercury in foods and water.
c.drugs and alcohol.
d.folic acid exposure.
Question 3As an APRN, you would expect a patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine to…
Select one:
a.demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
b.require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
c.require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
d.show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
Question 4By analyzing amniotic fluid, which of the following can be detected?
Select one:
a.Chromosomal abnormalities
b.Metabolic disorders
c.Certain structural abnormalities
d.All the above
Question 5Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following except
Select one:
a.cirrhosis.
b.mental confusion.
c.loss of motor coordination.
d.altered personality and amnesia)
e.kidney failure.
Question 6Down syndrome is an example of which of the following types of disorders?
Select one:
a.autosomal recessive disorder.
b.multifactorial disorder.
c.developmental defect.
d.chromosomal disorder.
Question 7Generally speaking, high risk factors for cancer include…
1. human papilloma virus.
2. chronic irritation and inflammation.
4. repeated sun exposure.
4. high family incidence.
Select one:
a.1, 2
b.1, 3, 4
c.1, 2, 4
d.1, 2, 3, 4
Question 8Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective gene from
Select one:
a.His father.
b.His mother.
c.Both parents.
d.We cannot tell
Question 9If a provider needs to make a prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid, which procedure would be performed?
Select one:
a.Chorionic villus testing
b.Quad test
c.Amniocentesis
d.Triple-screen test
Question 10If an agent has the potential to cause damage during embryonic or fetal development, it may be referred to as which of the following?
Select one:
a.teratogenic.
b.mutagenic.
c.multifactorial agents.
d.None of the above.
