Regis NU606 Week 10 Quiz Latest 2021 June

NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology

Week 10 Quiz   

Question 1

Which of the following conditions are required for a patient to be declared a “brain death”? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.No activity on EEG

 b.Absence of all reflexes

 c.No spontaneous respirations

 d.Presence of any head injury

Question 2Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?

 a.Between the double layers of the dura mater

 b.In the subdural space

 c.In the subarachnoid space

d.Through the arachnoid villi

Question 3Which of the following is a true statement about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)?

 a.They usually cause necrosis and permanent brain damage.

 b.They may be caused by rupture of an aneurysm or a damaged artery.

 c.They usually indicate systemic hypotension.

 d.They can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents (CVA).

Question 4Which of the following factors predispose an individual to a CVA? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.Hypertension

 b.Smoking cigarettes

 c.History of coronary artery disease

 d.Diabetes mellitus

 e.BMI less than 18

Question 5Which type of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has the poorest prognosis?

 a.CVA caused by thrombus

 b.Hemorrhagic CVA

 c.Embolic CVA

 d.No difference among types

Question 6All of the following statements are true regarding cerebrovascular accidents EXCEPT ________.

 a.the common cause is an atheroma with thrombus

 b.maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset

c.warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery

 d.increasing neurological deficits usually develop during the first few days

Question 7As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the ________.

 a.optic nerve

 b.peripheral nervous system (PNS) fibers in cranial nerve III

c.sympathetic nervous system (SNS) nerve to the eye

 d.occipital lobe

Question 8What changes in blood pressure do you expect to observe in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?

 a.Erratic diastolic pressure

 b.Decreasing systolic pressure

 c.Systolic and diastolic pressures decreasing proportionately

 d.Increasing pulse pressure

Question 9What determines which signs and symptoms of a stroke that a patient presents with?

 a.Location of obstruction, size of artery, and area affected

b.Duration of the blockage, distance from the heart, and type of obstruction

 c.Health of the victim, area affected, and collateral circulation

 d.Size of the obstruction, condition of the heart, and duration of blockage

Question 10What changes would you expect to find in the brain of a patient with Alzheimer disease?

 a.Cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction

b.Increased acetylcholine (ACh) and decreased GABA and serotonin levels

 c.Obstruction of many small arteries and arterioles throughout the cerebral cortex

 d.Vacuoles forming in the neurons, rapidly destroying them

Question 11Which of the following signs and symptoms would make you suspicious for early Parkinson disease?

 a.Tremors at rest in the hands and repetitive motion of the hands

b.Extreme weakness in the legs and spastic movements in the arms

 c.Visual deficits and speech impairment

 d.Loss of facial expressions and altered posture and gait

Question 12What is the pathophysiological change that occurs in Parkinson disease?

 a.Degeneration of motor fibers in the pyramidal tracts

 b.Excess secretion of stimulatory neurotransmitters in the CNS

 c.Degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine

d.Deficit of acetylcholine and degeneration of the motor cortex in the frontal lobe

Question 13Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of cerebral palsy?

 a.Non-progressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate

 b.A genetic defect affecting metabolism and causing degeneration in the neurons

 c.A developmental error during early growth of the peripheral nervous system

 d.A chromosomal defect resulting in abnormalities in many body structure

Cerebral palsy is non-progressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate.

Question 14Which of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.Enlarged head with bulging fontanels

 b.Vomiting, headache, and paralysis

 c.Irritability and feeding difficulties

 d.Eyes turned downward with sclerae showing above the pupils.

Question 15Increased use of which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years?

 a.Vitamin B6

 b.Folic acid

c.Vitamins A and D

 d.Zinc and magnesium

Question 16Which of the following mechanisms is the most common cause of brain damage in children with cerebral palsy?

 a.Hyperbilirubinemia

 b.Hypoglycemia

 c.Hypoxia

d.Trauma

Question 17Which of the following most accurately applies to characteristics of Parkinson disease?

 a.It usually develops in men and women over 60 years of age.

b.There is no apparent genetic component.

 c.The majority of cases are predisposed by intake of antipsychotic medications.

 d.It rarely develops in women.

Question 18Which type of seizure most commonly occurs in children?

 a.Absence

b.Tonic-clonic

 c.Focal

 d.Complex partial

Question 19What term best describes a seizure consisting of bizarre or inappropriate activity?

 a.Absence seizure

 b.Psychomotor seizure

c.Focal seizure

 d.Jacksonian seizure

Question 20Thinking about the pathophysiology of brain tumors, why are focal or generalized seizures sometimes an early indication of a brain tumor?

 a.Surrounding inflammation stimulates neurons to discharge spontaneously.

 b.Malignant tumors cause alkalosis, exciting the CNS.

 c.Systemic effects of the brain tumor may cause seizures.

 d.Metabolic effects of cancer change blood chemistry to trigger seizures.

Question 21Which term refers to near-sightedness?

 a.Hyperopia

 b.Presbyopia

 c.Myopia

d.Diplopia

Question 22Which structures are found in the inner ear?

 a.Malleus, incus, and stapes

 b.Organ of Corti and semicircular canals

 c.Tympanic membrane and auditory canal

 d.Ossicles and oval window

Question 23Which term refers to the involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes that often indicates a pathologic process?

 a.Strabismus

 b.Nystagmus

 c.Presbyopia

 d.Diplopia

Question 24Which of the following statements most accurately describes the pathophysiology of macular degeneration?

 a.Increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye

 b.Movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid

 c.Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis

d.Damage to the optic nerve and meninges

Question 25Which of the following statements are  in regard to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.It involves the conjunctiva.

 b.It is highly contagious.

 c.It is commonly known as “pinkeye.”

 d.It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.

Question 26Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between which two structures of the eye?

 a.Retina and ciliary process

 b.Lens and ciliary body

 c.Iris and cornea

 d.Iris and lens

Question 27Which of the following statements is not  regarding the characteristics of chronic glaucoma?

 a.Degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network

 b.Gradual increase in intraocular pressure

 c.Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris

d.Damage to the retina and optic nerve

Question 28Any infection that affects or damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of hearing loss?

 a.Sensorineural

 b.Conduction

 c.Semi-acute

 d.Inflammatory

Question 29Which of the following best describes why vertigo occurs with Ménière syndrome?

 a.Fluid is lost from the inner ear.

 b.Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears.

 c.Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve.

 d.Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.

Question 30In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear along with reported pain relief likely indicate?

 a.Infection of the external ear

 b.Obstruction of the auditory tube

 c.Rupture of the tympanic membrane

d.Resolution of the infection

Question 31Which of the following best describes how otosclerosis causes hearing loss?

 a.Fixation of the stapes to the oval window

 b.Adhesions between the ossicles

 c.Fibrosis in the tympanic membrane

 d.Overgrowth of bone obstructing the auditory tub

Question 32Partially

Which of the following endocrine hormones can cause an increase in blood glucose levels? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.Glucocorticoids

 b.Glucagon

 c.Epinephrine

 d.Norepinephrine

 e.Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Question 33Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person?

 a.Pale, moist skin

 b.Thirst and poor skin turgor

 c.Deep, rapid respirations and fruity breath odor

d.Tremors and strong rapid pulse

Question 34Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.Obesity

 b.< 40 years of age

 c.Beta cell destruction

 d.Family history

 e.African American ethnicity

Question 35Which of the following are true regarding diabetic macro-angiography? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.It affects the small arteries and arterioles.

 b.It is related to elevated serum lipids.

 c.It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease.

 d.It frequently causes damage to the kidneys.

Question 36Which of the following is NOT a common complication of diabetes?

 a.Osteoporosis

b.Nephropathy

 c.Impotence

 d.Peripheral neuropathy

Question 37Jane has type 1 diabetes and was late to her appointment. She is experiencing hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is ________.

 a.hyperglycemia caused by  insulin administration

 b.fawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

 c.hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

 d.Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

Question 38During your exam, you encounter a visibly enlarged thyroid gland. Which of the following terms would you use to document your finding?

 a.Hematoma

 b.Nodule

 c.Goiter

d.Mass

Question 39Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?

 a.Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss

 b.Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin

 c.Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia

 d.Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

Question 40What is a common sequela of hyperparathyroidism?

 a.Hypocalcemia

 b.Tetany

 c.Bone demineralization

 d.Deficit of vitamin D

Question 41Which of the following occur secondary to hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:

 a.Skeletal muscle twitching or spasm

 b.Weak cardiac contraction

 c.Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

 d.Decreased serum phosphate level

Question 42Graves’ disease results from which of the following?

 a.Decreased parathyroid tissue

 b.Decreased production of thyroid hormones

 c.Increased production of thyroid hormones

d.Increased iodine consumption

Question 43Dwarfism is caused by ________.

 a.excessive levels of somatotropin (GH)

 b.a deficit of somatotropin (GH)

c.excessive levels of insulin

 d.excessive levels of parathyroid hormone

Question 44Which of the following results from a deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

 a.Inappropriate ADH syndrome

 b.Gigantism

 c.Diabetes insipidus

 d.Myxedema

Question 45Which of the following signs and symptoms may develop with a pituitary adenoma?

 a.Low blood pressure and bradycardia

 b.Headache and seizures

c.Vomiting and diarrhea

 d.Loss of vision in one eye

Question 46Which of the following develops as a result of primary hypopituitarism?

 a.Hypothyroidism

b.Hyperthyroidism

 c.Goiter development

 d.Thyroid cancer

Question 47Which of the following hormones is involved in both the stress response and the anti-inflammatory response?

 a.Aldosterone

 b.Norepinephrine

 c.Thyroxine

 d.Cortisol

Question 48The primary cause of Addison's disease is which of the following?

 a.Autoimmune disorder

 b.Autosomal recessive disorder

 c.Viral infection

 d.Exogenous steroids

Question 49Which of the following is an effect of Addison disease?

 a.Elevated blood glucose levels

 b.High blood pressure

 c.Improved mood

 d.Extreme fatigue

Question 50You are seeing a patient who presents with acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations make you most suspicious of which endocrine disorder?

 a.Hyperthyroidism

 b.Hypoaldosteronism

 c.Diabetes insipidus (DI)

 d.Cushing disease