NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 14 Quiz
Question 1A father affected with hemophilia A, whose partner is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to
Select one:
a.all of his sons, who will be affected.
b.50% of his sons, who will be carriers.
c.all of his daughters, who will be carriers.
d.50% of his daughters, who will be affected.
Question 2All of the following can result in developmental disorders except:
Select one:
a.hypoxia and ischemia to the brain.
b.mercury in foods and water.
c.drugs and alcohol.
d.folic acid exposure.
Question 3As an APRN, you would expect a patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine to…
Select one:
a.demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
b.require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
c.require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
d.show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
Question 4By analyzing amniotic fluid, which of the following can be detected?
Select one:
a.Chromosomal abnormalities
b.Metabolic disorders
c.Certain structural abnormalities
d.All the above
Question 5Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following except
Select one:
a.cirrhosis.
b.mental confusion.
c.loss of motor coordination.
d.altered personality and amnesia)
e.kidney failure.
Question 6Down syndrome is an example of which of the following types of disorders?
Select one:
a.autosomal recessive disorder.
b.multifactorial disorder.
c.developmental defect.
d.chromosomal disorder.
Question 7Generally speaking, high risk factors for cancer include…
1. human papilloma virus.
2. chronic irritation and inflammation.
4. repeated sun exposure.
4. high family incidence.
Select one:
a.1, 2
b.1, 3, 4
c.1, 2, 4
d.1, 2, 3, 4
Question 8Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective gene from
Select one:
a.His father.
b.His mother.
c.Both parents.
d.We cannot tell
Question 9If a provider needs to make a prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid, which procedure would be performed?
Select one:
a.Chorionic villus testing
b.Quad test
c.Amniocentesis
d.Triple-screen test
Question 10If an agent has the potential to cause damage during embryonic or fetal development, it may be referred to as which of the following?
Select one:
a.teratogenic.
b.mutagenic.
c.multifactorial agents.
d.None of the above.
Question 11If two parents are both carriers of a defective recessive gene, what is the probability of having a homozygous child (with each pregnancy)?
Select one:
a.33%
b.25%
c.50%
d.75%
Question 12In the case of an X-linked recessive disorder, a carrier mother and unaffected father could produce a/an
Select one:
a.normal female.
b.affected female.
c.male carrier.
d.none of the above
Question 13Physiologic dependence can best be described as…?
Select one:
a.An intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
b.Adaptation of the body to a drug, resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
c.The need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
d.None of the above
Question 14TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high-risk maternal infections; TORCH stands for
Select one:
a.toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
b.tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), roseola, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
c.toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubeola, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
d.tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and hepatitis.
Question 15What can exposure to cocaine during pregnancy cause?
Select one:
a.premature birth.
b.respiratory problems.
c.sudden infant death syndrome.
d.all of the answers
Question 16What is the primary reason for performing blood tests on neonates?
Select one:
a.determine need for immediate surgical ion of anomalies.
b.identify disorders requiring immediate treatment.
c.identify the presence of any inherited disorders.
d.rule out the presence of any infection.
Question 17What occurs when there is an increased dosage of a drug or substance that causes toxic effects?
Select one:
a.synergism.
b.combined effects
c.overdose
d.taper
Question 18What type of cell does radiation therapy destroy?
Select one:
a.all cells in the tumor at one time.
b.the cells in the center of the tumor.
c.primarily rapidly dividing cells.
d.only tumor cells.
Question 19What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
Select one:
a.Epithelial cells, like those in the mouth
b.Skeletal muscle cells located away from the tumor
c.None; only cancer cells are damaged.
d.Collagen and fibrous tissue, such as tendons and ligaments
Question 20When exposure to harmful substances causes a spontaneous alteration in genetic material, this is called:
Select one:
a.polysomy.
b.genotype.
c.mitosis.
d.mutation.
Question 21When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality, the result is called a _________?
Select one:
a.autosomal disorder.
b.developmental disorder.
c.multifactorial disorder.
d.single-gene disorder.
Question 22When neutropenia develops during chemotherapy, what does this mean?
Select one:
a.the cancer cells are not being destroyed.
b.the patient is likely to hemorrhage.
c.higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient.
d.the patient is at high risk for infection
Question 23Which of the following characteristics of an abnormal growth would be reassuring that it is benign?
Select one:
a.It is unencapsulated and invades surrounding structures
b.It consists of many undifferentiated cells.
c.It exerts systemic effects on the body
d.Cells appear relatively normal in their makeup
Question 24Which of the following describes a key difference between benign tumors and malignant tumors?
Select one:
a.Benign tumors often have systemic effects.
b.Benign tumors contain cells showing increased mitosis and atypical rapid growth.
c.Benign tumors are encapsulated and slow growing.
d.Benign tumors can metastasize or invade nearby tissue.
Question 25Which of the following sets of signs and symptoms would be least concerning for the possible development of cancer?
Select one:
a.persistent, unusual bleeding from the rectum or vagina)
b.a change in bowel habits.
c.sudden development of fever, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea)
d.a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion.
Question 26Which of the following is characteristic of the remission period for cancer?
Select one:
a.chemotherapy cannot be used
b.signs and symptoms are absent
c.diagnosis is most likely in this period
d.metastases are likely to occur
Question 27Which of the following are considered warning signs for cancer?
Select one:
a.unusual bleeding
b.change in a wart or mole (e.g., color, size, etc).
c.a new solid lump that is painless.
d.all the above.
Question 28Which of the following statements is true regarding the sex chromosomes?
a.They are identified as XY in the female.
b.They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype.
c.They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.
d.They are found only in the cells in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).
Question 29Which of the following is most characteristic of a congenital disorder?
Select one:
a.Genes are not involved.
b.It is strictly a developmental anomaly.
c.A cause is known.
d.It usually manifests in infancy.
Question 30Which of the following describes the overall goal of the Human Genome Project?
Select one:
a.map the nucleotide sequence and identify the genes on each human chromosome.
b.study the common patterns of inheritance of single-gene disorders.
c.manipulate the sequence of DNA in microorganisms and animals.
d.none of the above.
Question 31Which of the following is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder?
Select one:
a.Type AB blood
b.Down syndrome
c.Color blindness
d.Cleft lip and palate
Question 32Which of the following is a reason to perform ultrasonography during pregnancy?
Select one:
a.detecting enzyme deficits.
b.identifying structural anomalies.
c.finding chromosomal defects.
d.discovering hormonal abnormalities.
Question 33Which of the following is the most invasive prenatal screening test for fetal abnormalities?
Select one:
a.ultrasonography.
b.amniocentesis.
c.x-ray.
d.blood tests.
Question 34Which of the following describes the status of a person with sickle cell trait that is heterozygous?
Select one:
a.They have an incomplete dominant gene.
b.They may develop a multifactorial condition.
c.They have codominant genes.
d.X-linked dominant trait.
Question 35Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is true?
Select one:
a.The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.
b.All children with Down syndrome have the same organ defects and medical problems.
c.The extent of cognitive impairment depends on parents.
d.The birth of a child with Down syndrome is only a risk to mothers under age 35.
Question 36Which of the following statements applies to Huntington disease?
Select one:
a.The effects are not obvious at birth.
b.There is not a test for the defective gene.
c.There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
d.The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
Question 37Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and can be used to help wean patients off opioids?
Select one:
a.Antabuse
b.Methadone
c.Heroin
d.Diazepam
Question 38Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol while taking this medication?
Select one:
a.Tylenol
b.Diazepam
c.Disulfiram
d.Naloxone
Question 39 Which of the following is regarding the use anabolic steroids?
Select one:
a.They cause CNS depression, deep sleep, and amnesia)
b.They often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system.
c.They relieve pains secondary to muscle spasms
d.They help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries.
Question 40Which of the following statements are true of alcohol as a substance? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.It is primarily a CNS stimulant.
b.It may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers
c.It does not interact with other drugs in the CNS.
d.It usually causes severe liver damage
Question 41Which of the following is an example of when synergism can cause an emergency and life-threatening situation?
Select one:
a.antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly.
b.a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken closely together
c.a large dose of a drug affects the CNS.
d.an individual involuntarily develops a habit.
Question 42Which of the following are signs and symptoms of schizophrenia? Select all that apply.
a.inability to associate ideas
b.repetition of words or thoughts
c.a prolonged attention span
d.hallucinations
Question 43Which of the following are signs and symptoms of depression? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.sadness
b.hopelessness
c.increased energy
d.interest in favorite activities
e.difficulty sleeping
Question 44Which of the following are extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotic drugs?
a.nausea and vomiting
b.twitching, facial grimaces, and tremors.
c.headaches
d.numbness in extremities.
Question 45Which of the following statements are true regarding panic disorder? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.It is a mood disorder
b.It is characterized by periods of extreme fear
c.It may include heart palpitations
d.Patients with panic disorder commonly experience hypoventilation
e.It may include sensations of choking
Feedback
Panic disorder is characterized by periods of extreme fear, may present with heart palpitations and sensations of choking. Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder in which patients often experience hyperventilation.
The answers are: It is characterized by periods of extreme fear, It may include heart palpitations, It may include sensations of choking
Question 46Which of the following neurotransmitters are involved in the pathophysiology of panic disorder?
Select one:
a.norepinephrine
b.serotonin
c.GABA
d.all of the answers
Question 47Which term describes a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue?
Select one:
a.Adenoma
b.Lipoma
c.Fibrosarcoma
d.Adenocarcinoma
Question 48Why are glucocorticoids often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation?
Select one:
a.glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy.
b.the immune system is stimulated.
c.they help prevent hair loss
d.inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.
Question 49Why does chemotherapy usually involve a combination of drugs as part of a treatment regimen?
1. to reduce the adverse effects of one or more drugs
2. to guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed.
3. to be effective in more phases of the cell cycle.
4. to totally block only the mitotic stage.
Select one:
a.1, 3
b.1, 4
c.2, 3
d.2, 4
Question 50Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished how?
Select one:
a.with medical support.
b.with legally prescribed drugs taken at home; usually CNS stimulants to combat symptoms
c.following intensive counseling and problem solving
d.none of the above
