NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 5 Quiz
Question 1Which of the following statements regarding fever are true? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Fevers can be caused by bacterial and viral infections.
b.It is caused by a signal to the thalamus.
c.It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.
d.There is a protective mechanism involved with fever, even though it causes undesirable symptoms.
Question 2The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to ________.
a.phagocytosis of foreign material
b.formation of purulent exudates
c.any tissue injury
d.none of the above
Question 3Which of the following mediators is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response?
a.Bradykinin
b.Histamine
c.Leukotrienes
d.Chemotactic factors
Question 4Which of the following explanations ly denotes the proper sequence in the healing process?
a.A blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels develop; phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar.
b.A blood clot forms; phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar.
c.Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; angiogenesis takes place; and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes.
d.Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.
Question 5Which term describes replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells?
a.Fibrosis
b.Regeneration
c.Resolution
d.Repair by scar tissue
Question 6You are working with a patient in urgent care who requires sutures to close a wound. She asks why this is necessary. Which of the following factors that promotes rapid healing is most appropriate to use in your explanation to her?
a.Closely approximated edges of a wound
b.Absence of foreign material.
c.Exposure to radiation
d.Vasoconstriction in the involved area
Question 7Which of the following are the desired outcomes of the inflammatory process as it functions to return the body to a more homeostatic state? Select all that apply.
a.Systemic inflammation
b.*Prevent spread of infection
c.Increase white blood cells (WBCs) to the area of injury
d.Prepare the area of injury for healing
e.Decrease capillary permeability
Question 8Mr. A has been brought into the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident (MVA). He is a 78-year-old male, and he was driving at the time of the collision. He was wearing his seatbelt, and the windows did shatter. The air bag deployed, and he cannot remember if he hit his head. There is a small burn mark on his arm, but he was smoking a cigarette at the time of the accident. He has multiple visible injuries and is being evaluated for internal injuries.
Given his injuries, there is likely a significant inflammatory response occurring. Which of the following indicates a local inflammatory response? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Redness
b.Swelling
c.Warmth
d.Fever
e.Decreased pulses
Question 9Which of the following are advantages of using a biosynthetic skin substitute on a large area of full thickness burns?
1. Reduced risk of infection
2. Developing stronger fibrous scar tissue
3. More rapid healing
4. Regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles
a.1, 4
b.3, 4
c.1, 3
d.2, 3
Question 10When a patient has significant burns to their body, you may begin to see major changes in many different body functions within ________.
a.the first few minutes
b.the first few hours
c.the first few days
d.the first few weeks
Question 11Which of the following are systemic effects of inflammation?
a.Erythema and warmth
b.Loss of movement at the affected joint
c.Fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever
d.Abscess formation.
Question 12Mr. A has been brought into the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident (MVA). He is a 78-year-old male, and he was driving at the time of the collision. He was wearing a seat belt, and the air bag deployed. The windshield and one of the windows shattered with the impact. He has a small burn mark on his arm, which he reports is from the cigarette he was smoking at the time of the accident. He has multiple other visible injuries, and possibly others that are not visible as well.
On exam, you note that Mr. A has also injured his ankle and it is swollen, red, and warm. What type of inflammation is Mr. A experiencing in his ankle and with the burn on his arm?
a.Acute@
b.Sub-acute
c.Chronic
d.Sub-chronic
Question 13Why are glucocorticoids used to treat chronic inflammation?
a.They promote the release of prostaglandins at the site.
b.They decrease capillary permeability.
c.They mobilize lymphocytes and neutrophils.
d.They prevent infection.
Question 14Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids such as prednisone may cause which of the following? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Atrophy of lymphoid tissue
b.Increased resistance to infection
c.Thrombocytopenia
d.Decreased protein synthesis
Question 15Which statement is true regarding menisci?
a.They are found in the hip joints.
b.They are secretory membranes in joints.
c.They prevent excessive movement of joints.
d.They are found in the shoulder joint.
Question 16Sensory receptors that provide information about body movement, orientation, or muscle stretch are referred to as ________.
a.visceroceptors
b.baroreceptors
c.mechanoceptors
d.proprioceptors
Question 17Which of the following best describes a Colles' fracture?
a.The distal radius is broken.
b.The distal fibula is broken.
c.A vertebra appears crushed.
d.A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
Question 18Match the following terms to the definition.
Failure of the bone ends to grow together
Healing in a nonanatomic position
Union does not occur until 8 to 9 months after the fracture
Question 19When a fat emboli develops from a broken femur, what is the immediate and emergent complication that can occur?
a.Additional ischemia in the broken bone
b.Nonunion or malunion of the fracture
c.Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
d.Abscess and infection at a distant site
Question 20What do patients experience as a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
a.Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
b.Frequent fractures of long bones
c.Impaired heart function
d.Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
Question 21Which of the following factors is most likely to precipitate in acute gout attack?
a.A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
b.Severe hypercalcemia
c.Mild trauma to the toes
d.Development of a tophus
Question 22What characteristics of pain might you expect a patient with osteoarthritis to report?
a.Pain that decreases over time
b.Pain that is quite severe in the early stages
c.Pain that occurs with general muscle aching
d.Pain increased with weight-bearing and activity
Question 23Which term refers to a condition characterized by widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and specific points of tenderness throughout the body?
a.Osteoarthritis
b.Fibromyalgia
c.Septic arthritis
d.Osteosarcoma
Question 24How would you anticipate a joint to appear during an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
a.Relatively normal
b.Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement
c.Deformed, pale, and nodular
d.Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
Question 25Which statements describe the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply.
a.Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
b.Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
c.Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
d.Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
Question 26Which of the following factors predispose patients to osteoporosis? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Weight-bearing activity
b.A sedentary lifestyle
c.Long-term intake of glucocorticoids
d.Calcium deficit
Question 27Which type of pain would you expect a patient with osteogenic sarcoma to experience?
a.Intermittent, increasing with activity
b.Sharp, increased with joint movement
c.Mild, aching when weight-bearing
d.Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
Question 28Which of the following describe the typical early signs of Still’s disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
b.High fever and skin rash
c.Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
d.Deformity of the hands and feet
Question 29Which of the following statements are true regarding Duchenne muscular dystrophy? Select all that apply.
a.There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at two to three years of age.
b.It involves only the legs and pelvis.
c.Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler.
d.It cannot be detected in any carriers.
Question 30Match the following term with the definition.
Thin to thick fibrous tissue that replaces normal tissue following injury
Loss of epidermis
Linear crack or break from the epidermis to the dermis
Loss of part of the dermis following rupture of vesicle of bulla
Loss of epidermis and dermis
Question 31Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
a.Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
b.Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
c.Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
d.Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Question 32A patient who has been diagnosed with both asthma and allergic rhinitis is most at risk for developing which of the following conditions?
a.Atopic dermatitis
b.Contact dermatitis
c.Cellulitis
d.Tinea pedis
Question 33Which statement best describes the pathological changes in the skin that lead to psoriasis?
a.Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions and urticaria
b.Autoimmune response in the dermis
c.Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
d.Basal cell degeneration of the epidermis
Question 34Which dermatologic structures develop an infection that leads to acne vulgaris?
a.Sweat glands of the upper body
b.Dermis and epidermis of the skin
c.Apocrine glands
d.Sebaceous glands and hair follicles
Question 35Which type of microbe causes tinea infections?
a.Fungus
b.Virus
c.Gram-negative bacterium
d.Mite
Question 36Which of the following statements ly matches the skin condition and its usual location?
a.Scabies: fingers, wrists, waist
b.Impetigo: legs, feet
c.Pediculosis humanus corporis: scalp
Scabies is usually seen on the fingers, wrists, and waist.
d.Seborrheic keratosis: feet, hands
Question 37Which of the following statements apply to impetigo? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Lesions usually appear on the hands and arms.
b.The cause is bacterial.
c.The infection is highly contagious.
d.Scar tissue is common following infection.
Question 38What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma?
a.Viral infection
b.Presence of nevi (moles) on the skin Exposure to ultraviolet light is a major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma.
c.Exposure to ultraviolet light
d.Frequent hypersensitivity reactions
Question 39Which of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.The malignant cell is a melanocyte.
b.They present as nonpruritic purplish macules.
c.The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early.
d.The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border.
Question 40Which term refers to the outermost layer of the skin?
a.Stratum granulosum
b.Stratum lucidum
c.Stratum basale
d.Stratum corneum
Question 41Which of the following statements are true regarding how the skin functions as the first line of defense against infection? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Sebum is produced, which is acidic and inhibits bacterial growth.
b.Intact skin provides a physical barrier.
c.Resident flora act as a deterrent to invading organisms.
d.Sweat helps to prevent invasion by microorganisms.
e.None of the statements are true.
Question 42Which terms describes a rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer?
a.Castleman disease
b.Hyper-lymphatic disease
c.Hypo-lymphatic disease
d.Ann Arbor disease
Question 43Which of the following most accurately describes the function of the spleen?
a.Lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production
b.Hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir
c.Defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production
d.Lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption
Question 44Why are the tonsils more prone to infection than other components of the lymphatic system?
a.They are the first line of defense against invading organisms in the mouth and nose.
b.They have more resident flora than other parts of the lymphatic system.
c.They are composed of connective tissue instead of lymphoid tissue.
d.They are not more prone to infection and are often removed without consequence.
Question 45The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma is the ________.
a.monocyte
b.Ann Arbor cell
c.Hodgkin lymphocyte
d.Reed-Sternberg cell
Question 46What is the principal cell type involved in multiple myeloma?
a.Plasma cells
b.T cells
c.NK cells
d.Monocytes
Question 47Lymphedema occurs when the tissues in the extremities swell due an obstruction of the lymphatic vessels leading to an accumulation of lymph.
True
False
Question 48Which of the following interventions can help return a patient who is experiencing lymphedema to a more homeostatic state? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Diuretics to reduce swelling
b.Elevation of the affected area
c.Massage to the affected area
d.Allowing the affected area to remain dependent
e.Strict bed rest
Question 49Why is non-Hodgkin lymphoma harder to treat than Hodgkin lymphoma?
a.Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas tend to be much larger than Hodgkin lymphomas.
b.Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
c.Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
d.Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
Question 50Which statement best describes the mechanism by which multiple myeloma spreads throughout the body?
a.Tumor cells travel throughout the body via the lymphatic system, into the lymph nodes and infiltrating organs.
b.Tumor cells attach to antibodies and travel through the blood vessels.
c.Pieces of lysed bone break off and travel through the vasculature.
d.Tumor cells enter the bloodstream mainly when pathologic fractures occur.
