NU606 Advanced Pathophysiology
Week 8 Quiz
Question 1Which pathological process is the main causative factor for the signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera?
Select one:
a.A decreased erythrocyte count
b.Destruction of erythrocytes
c.Increased blood viscosity
d.Neurologic involvement
Question 2Which of the following are predisposing factors to leukemia? Select all that apply.
Select one:
a.Exposure to radiation
b.Certain fungal and protozoal infections
c.Familial tendency
d.Cigarette smoking
Question 3Which statement best describes the basic pathophysiology of thalassemia?
Select one:
a.Several amino acids in the globin chains have been replaced by substitute amino acids.
b.More than four globin chains are found in the erythrocytes.
c.The iron molecule is displaced in hemoglobin.
d.There is failure to synthesize either the alpha or beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule.
Question 4Mr. A has fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea. His conjunctiva and palms are pale. His nails appear brittle, thin, and concave, and he has sores at the corners of his mouth. He reports a very poor diet as of late. Based on this information, which type of anemia are you most suspicious for?
Select one:
a.Pernicious
b.Iron deficiency
c.Aplastic
d.Hemolytic
Question 5Which of the following anemias can result from a malabsorption problem?
Select one:
a.Aplastic anemia
b.Sickle cell anemia
c.Thalassemia major
d.Pernicious anemia
Question 6Mr. J has cheilosis, stomatitis, and painful ulceration of the buccal mucosa and mouth. He complains of dysphagia and watery diarrhea. Based on these symptoms, what type of anemia are you most suspicious of?
Select one:
a.Pernicious anemia
b.Folate deficiency anemia
c.Anemia of chronic disease
d.Iron deficiency anemia
Question 7What is the etiology of Von Willebrand disease?
Select one:
a.Defective erythrocytes that become deformed in shape, causing occlusions
b.Excessive lymphocytes that do not mature
c.Absence of a clotting factor that helps platelets clump and stick
d.A lack of hemoglobin due to iron deficiency
Question 8Which of the following statements is true regarding hemophilia A?
Select one:
a.It is transmitted as an X-linked dominant trait.
b. There is usually a total lack of factor VIII in the blood.
c.Males and females can be carriers.
d.Hematomas and hemarthroses are common.
Question 9Petechiae and purpura are common signs of ________.
Select one:
a.excessive hemolysis
b.leucopenia
c.increased bleeding
d.hemoglobin deficit
Question 10In patients with acute leukemia, the increased number of malignant leukocytes can cause which of the following signs and symptoms?
1. Decreased hemoglobin
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Bone pain with increased activity
4. Splenomegaly
Select one:
a.1, 3
b.1, 2, 4
c.2, 3, 4,
d.1, 2, 3, 4
Question 11Which of the following statements is true regarding the etiology of aplastic anemia?
Select one:
a.It is idiopathic in many cases.
b.It is a genetic disorder.
c.It is predisposed by exposure to myelotoxins.
d.Both A and C
Question 12In hemolytic anemia, which process leads to the development of jaundice?
Select one:
a.Erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.
b.Heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
c.The patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).
d.The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.
Question 13Elevated blood pressure in patients with polycythemia vera is a result of ________.
Select one:
a.increased blood volume
b.frequent infarcts in the coronary circulation
c.congested spleen and bone marrow
d.increased renin and aldosterone secretions
Question 14Match the following cardiac terms with the defining characteristic.
Chest pain that occurs during times of increased physical exertion or emotional stress
Chest pain that occurs unpredictably and almost exclusively at rest
Myocardial ischemia that does not produce chest pain
Form of acute coronary syndrome that results in reversible myocardial ischemia
Generic term to describe chest pain
Question 15
Match the following cardiac condition with the physiologic description.
Results in pulmonary vascular congestion
Results in peripheral edema
Atherosclerosis of the arteries that perfuse limbs
Spasm or occlusion of the arteries that supply the heart
Question 16Which of the following are modifiable factor(s) that increase the risk for atherosclerosis? Select all that apply.
Select one:
a.Leading a sedentary lifestyle
b.Being female and older than 40 years of age
c.Excluding saturated fats from the diet
d.Familial hypercholesterolemia
Question 17Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Select one:
a.Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
b.Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
c.High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
LDLs are manufactured by the liver and primarily contain cholesterol and protein.
d.Triglycerides (TGs)
Question 18Late signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include________.
Select one:
a.incompetent tricuspid heart valve
b.chronic pulmonary disease
c.infarction in the right atrium
d.uncontrolled essential hypertension
Question 19Which condition typically presents with a friction rub?
Select one:
a.Infectious endocarditis
b.Arrhythmias
c.Pericarditis
d.An incompetent aortic valve
Question 20Which of the following can cause pericarditis?
1. Infection
2. Abnormal immune responses
3. Injury
4. Malignant neoplasm
Select one:
a.1, 2
b.3, 4
c.1, 3, 4
d.1, 2, 3, 4
Question 21What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?
Select one:
a.Cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation
b.Ruptured ventricle or aorta
c.Congestive heart failure
d.Cerebrovascular accident
Question 22How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
Select one:
a.By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.By reducing the contractility of the myocardium.
d.By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
Question 23When stroke volume decreases, which of the following compensatory mechanisms could help the body maintain homeostasis?
Select one:
a.Decreased peripheral resistance
b.Increased heart rate
c.Decreased venous return
d.General vasodilation
Question 24Which of the following processes result in premature ventricular contractions?
Select one:
a.Atrial muscle cells are stimulating additional cardiac contractions.
b.The ventricles contract spontaneously following a period without a stimulus.
c.Additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle.
d.Increased heart rate causes palpitations.
Question 25Which areas are most susceptible to ischemia and loss of function related to uncontrolled hypertension?
Select one:
a.Kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye
b.Peripheral arteries in the legs
c.Aorta and coronary arteries
d.Liver, spleen, and stomach
Question 26What is a common initial indication of congestive heart failure in infants?
Select one:
a.Distended neck veins
b.Feeding problems
c.Low-grade fever and lethargy
d.Frequent vomiting
Question 27What is Virchow’s triad?
Select one:
a.An anatomical structure in the kidneys
b.A combination of factors affecting potential thrombus formation
c.Psychological factors leading to stress associated with immobility
d.Factors that predispose an individual toward urinary tract infections
Question 28The term intermittent claudication refers to ________.
Select one:
a.sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves
b.chest pain related to ischemia
c.ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise
d.dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers
Question 29Why is phlebothrombosis more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than thrombophlebitis?
Select one:
a.Platelets attach to the inflamed wall.
b.The thrombus forms in a vein and is less firmly attached.
c.A thrombus formed in a vein is more firmly attached.
d.None of the above
Question 30Which of the following findings would you expect in a patient who has atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries?
1. Gangrenous ulcers in the legs
2. Strong rapid pulses in the legs
3. Intermittent claudication
4. Red, swollen legs
Select one:
a.1, 2
b.1, 3
c.2, 3
d.2, 4
Question 31What causes systemic vasodilation that leads to neurogenic (vasogenic) shock?
Select one:
a.Increased peripheral resistance and less blood in the microcirculation
b.Increased permeability of all the blood vessels, leading to hypovolemia
c.Slower, less forceful cardiac contractions
d.Increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return
Question 32Which of the following are compensations that help the body recover from shock and return to homeostasis?
Select one:
a.Increased heart rate and oliguria
b.Lethargy and decreased responsiveness
c.Warm, dry, flushed skin
d.Weak, thready pulse
Question 33Which of the following most accurately describes hemoptysis?
Select one:
a.Thick, dark red sputum associated with pneumococcal infection
b.Reddish-brown granular blood found in vomitus
c.Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
d.Bloody exudate in the pleural cavity
Question 34
Which of the following most accurately describes Kussmaul respirations?
Select one:
a.Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing
b.Commonly observed in pulmonary fibrosis
c.Commonly observed in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d.Deep, labored breathing with no expiratory pause
Question 35Illness caused by a SARS virus typically begins as a flulike syndrome followed by ________.
Select one:
a.increased exudates in the bronchial tree and pleural cavity
b.productive cough and lobar consolidation
c.interstitial lung congestion, dyspnea, and dry cough
d.hemoptysis and necrosis of mucous membrane
Question 36What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
Select one:
a.Rhinovirus
b.Influenza virus
c.Haemophilus influenza
d.Coronavirus
Question 37Which of the following best describes laryngotracheobronchitis and the age at which patients are most susceptible?
Select one:
a.Viral infection in an infant under 12 months
b.Viral infection in a child, three months to three years
c.Bacterial infection in an infant under six months
d.Bacterial infection in a child, three to seven years
Question 38Which of the following is/are true regarding tuberculosis? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.The microbe is not always present in the sputum of all patients with a positive TB skin test.
b.The infection is transmitted primarily by blood from an infected person.
c.TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many disinfectants.
d.The microbe is quickly destroyed by the immune response.
Question 39Patients with COPD experience what conditions simultaneously?
Select one:
a.Emphysema, chronic bronchitis
b.Pneumonia, chronic bronchitis
c.Emphysema, atelectasis
d.Acute bronchitis, emphysema
Question 40What finding in a newborn would make you most suspicious for cystic fibrosis?
Select one:
a.Infant respiratory distress syndrome
b.Failure to excrete meconium
c.Taste of ammonia on the skin
d.Lack of bile secretions
Question 41What is the inheritance pattern for cystic fibrosis?
Select one:
a.X-linked recessive
b.Autosomal recessive
c.Autosomal dominant
d.Chromosomal defect
Question 42What is the most likely disease process occurring in a patient that has signs and symptoms of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough?
Select one:
a.Chronic bronchitis
b.Bronchiolitis
c.Pneumonia
d.Asthma
Question 43Which of the following findings would you expect a patient experiencing bronchiectasis to exhibit?
Select one:
a.Persistent nonproductive cough, dyspnea, and fatigue
b.Persistent purulent nasal discharge, fever, and cough
c.Chronic cough, producing large quantities of purulent sputum
d.Wheezing and stridor
Question 44Restrictive lung disorders may be divided into two groups based on which of the following?
Select one:
a.Patient history of obesity and exposure to other COPD patients
b.Smoking history and congenital defects
c.Previous lung disease and cardiovascular disorders
d.Anatomical abnormality and lung disease damage that impairs expansion
Question 45Which of the following statements best describes how cor pulmonale develops in patients with chronic pulmonary disease?
Select one:
a.The right ventricle pumps more blood than the left ventricle.
b.Pulmonary fibrosis and vasoconstriction increase vascular resistance.
c.Demands on the left ventricle are excessive.
d.Blood viscosity is increased, adding to cardiac workload.
Question 46What findings would be expected in a patient with a large-sized pulmonary embolus?
Select one:
a.Hypertension and left-sided heart failure
b.Atelectasis and respiratory failure
c.Hypotension and right-sided heart failure
d.Pleural effusion and atelectasis
Question 47Which of the following is/are causes for pulmonary edema? Select all that apply.
Select one or more:
a.Left-sided congestive heart failure
b.Excessive blood volume (overload)
c.Inhalation of toxic gases
d.Hyperproteinemia and increasing osmotic pressure of the blood
Question 48Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology that causes infant respiratory distress syndrome?
a.Insufficient surfactant production
b.Incomplete expiration shortly after birth
c.Retention of fluid in the lungs after birth
d.Immature neural control of respirations
Question 49Which of the following best describes how a large pleural effusion leads to atelectasis?
Select one:
a.The cohesion between the pleural membranes is disrupted.
b.The mediastinal contents compress the affected side.
c.There is decreased intrapleural pressure
d.Pleuritic pain causes very shallow breathing
Question 50When is a patient most likely to experience flail chest?
Select one:
a.An open puncture wound involves the pleural membranes.
b.The visceral pleura is torn by a fractured rib.
c.Several ribs are fractured at two sites.
d.Increasing fluid in the pleural cavity causes atelectasis.
