UOP NRP571 All Quizzes Latest 2021 October (Full)

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 1 Quiz

Question 1 A 30-year-old paralegal analyst comes to your clinic, complaining of a bad-smelling vaginal discharge with some mild itching, present for about 3 weeks. She tried douching but it did not help. She has had no pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. She has noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of one spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is married and has one child. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died from a heart disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. On examination of the perineum there are no lesions noted. On palpation of the inguinal nodes there is no lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination a thin gray-white discharge is seen in the vault. The pH of the discharge is over 4.5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled borders (clue cells).

What type of vaginitis best describes her findings?

Trichomonas vaginitis

Candida vaginitis

Bacterial vaginosis

Atrophic vaginitis

Question 2A 34-year-old married daycare worker comes to your office, complaining of severe pelvic pain for the last 6 hours. She states that the pain was at first cramp-like but is now sharp. Nothing makes the pain better or worse. She has had no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has had no pain with urination. She has had some nausea for the last few days but denies vomiting, constipation, or diarrhea. She states she feels so bad that when she stands up she has fainted. Her past medical history consists of two prior cesarean sections and an appendectomy. She is married and has two children. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her parents are both healthy. On examination you find a pale young woman who is obviously in a great deal of pain. She is lying on her right side with her eyes closed. Her blood pressure is 9060 and her pulse is 110. She is afebrile. She has bowel sounds and her abdomen is soft. The speculum examination reveals a bluish cervix but no blood or purulent discharge at the os. There is a mild amount of tenderness with palpation of the cervix. The uterus is nongravid but the right adnexal area is swollen and very tender. Urine analysis is normal and the urine pregnancy test is pending.

What type of adnexal disorder is causing her pain?

Ovarian cysts

Tubal pregnancy

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 3A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over  years. She has no other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual. Speculum examination reveals scant discharge and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor and there are no clue cells on the wet prep.

What form of vaginitis is this patient most likely to have?

Trichomonas vaginitis

Candida vaginitis

Bacterial vaginosis

Atrophic vaginitis

Question 4Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?

Fewer than 1 days between menses

Excessive flow

Infrequent bleeding

Bleeding between periods

Question 5 Posteriorly, the labia minora meet as two ridges that fuse to form the:

fourchette

vulva

clitoris

perineum

Question 6The vaginal discharge of a woman with a typical Trichomonas vaginalis infection is:

moderate, gray, with low pH.

scant, curdy, with high pH.

profuse, frothy, with high pH.

profuse, curdy, with low pH.

Question 7

 A 48-year-old high school librarian comes to your clinic, complaining of 1 week of heavy discharge causing severe itching. She is not presently sexually active and has had no burning with urination. The symptoms started several days after her last period. She just finished a course of antibiotics for a sinus infection. Her past medical history consists of type  diabetes and high blood pressure. She is widowed and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died of diabetes complications. On examination you see a healthy-appearing woman. Her blood pressure is 13080 and her pulse is 70. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 4.1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae.

What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?

Trichomonas vaginitis

Candida vaginitis

Bacterial vaginosis

Atrophic vaginitis

Question 8Which is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?

Beginning at the nipple, make an ever-enlarging spiral.

Divide the breast into quadrants and inspect each systematically.

Examine in lines resembling the back and forth pattern of mowing a lawn.

Beginning at the nipple, palpate outward in a stripe pattern.

Question 9What structures are located at the five-o’clock and the seven-o’clock positions of the vaginal orifice?

Skene glands

Bartholin glands

Nabothean glands

Hymenal glands

Question 10For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into:

halves (upper and lower).

thirds (left, middle, and right).

four quadrants plus a tail.

circles (six consecutive rings, each 1 inch farther away from nipple).

 

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 2 Quiz

Question 1 An 18 year old high school student presents to the office for evaluation of acute sudden onset of pain in his left testicle. It is intermittent, sharp, and radiates into his left groin. What test should be done to help in the evaluation process?

Cremasteric reflex

Testicular reflex

Prostate exam

Murphy’s test

Question 2Which is a sign of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Weight loss

Bone pain

Fever

Nocturia

Question 3A young man feels something in his scrotum and comes to you for clarification. On your examination, you note what feels like a “bag of worms” in the left scrotum, superior to the testicles. Which of the following is most likely?

Hydrocele of the spermatic cord

Varicocele

Testicular carcinoma

A normal vas deferens

Question 4You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?

Refer to urology

Recheck in 6 months

Tell the parent the testicle is absent but that this should not affect fertility

Attempt to bring down the testis from the inguinal canal

Question 5Frank is a 24-year-old man who presents with multiple burning erosions on the shaft of his penis and some tender inguinal adenopathy. Which of the following is most likely?

Primary syphilis

Herpes simplex

Chancroid

Gonorrhea

Question 6Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?

The presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum

Being unable to palpate superior to the mass

A positive transillumination test

Normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum

Question 7The most common cancer in young men aged 15-30 years old is:

Testicular

Penile

Prostate

Anus

Question 8Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?

Phimosis

Paraphimosis

Balanitis

Balanoposthitis

Question 9In males, which surface of the prostate gland is accessible by the DRE (digital rectal exam)?

median lobe

posterior

superior

anterior

Question 10What is the definition for Hypospadias?

Imflammation of the glans

Low hanging testicles

Tight prepuce that cannot be retraced over the glans

Ventral displacement of the urethra meatus on the penis

 

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 4 Quiz

Question 1 A young Hispanic mother brings in her 2-month-old son. She is upset because her neighbors have threatened to call the Child Protective Agency because they think his birthmark is a bruise. Her son was the product of an uneventful pregnancy and spontaneous vaginal delivery. On examination you see a large, smooth-bordered bluish mark on his buttock and lower back. Otherwise his examination is unremarkable.

What form of birthmark is this likely to be?

Café-au-lait spot

Salmon patch

Mongolian spot

Question 2In newborn infants, closure of the ductus arteriosus usually occurs:

After 7 days of life

12 – 48 hours after birth

During the toddler period

Between the second and third months

Question 3Developmental changes of puberty are caused mainly by the interaction of the pituitary gland, the gonads, and the:

Hypothalamus

Islet cells

Thymus

Thalamus

Question 4You are assessing an infant and notice that his nares flare, he has a soft grunt with each breath, and the skin between his ribs is pulled inward with inhalation. What is the significance of these findings?

These are indicative of a CNS process.

These are indicative of respiratory distress.

These are indicative of muscular dystrophy.

These are frequently accompanied by stridor.

Question 5You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. This indicates generalized:

Bursitis

Arthropathy

Muscle weakness

Muscle hypertrophy

Question 6The ability for abstract thinking normally develops during:

Infancy

Early childhood

Adolescence

Adulthood

Question 7In infants and small children, a capillary refill time of 4 seconds:

Is normal

Indicates hpovolemia

Indicates hypervolemia

Indicates renal artery stenosis

Question 8A mother brings her 15-month-old daughter to your office for evaluation of a rash and fever. She says the rash started one day and the fever developed the next day. Her daughter has had all of her vaccinations up to 10 months. The mother sheepishly admits that she hasn't had time to bring her daughter in since her 10-month check-up. On examination you see a mildly sick-appearing toddler with a 102-degree temperature. Looking at her skin you see at least 100 of a variety of papules, vesicles, and ulcers in different stages of development.

What illness prevented by proper vaccination does this toddler have?

Varicella (chickenpox)

Measles

Smallpox

Question 9You are examining a 5-year-old before he begins school. You notice a systolic, grade II/VI vibratory murmur over the LLSB and apex with normal S2 splitting. He has normal pulses as well. Which of the following is most likely?

Tricuspid stenosis

Mitral stenosis

Still's murmur

Venous hum

Question 10One way that a health history for an infant differs from that of an adult is the inclusion of:

Nutritional history

Chief Complaint

Prenatal information

personal social information

Question 11When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the:

Presence and form of body parts

Gender and race of the person drawn

Length of time needed to draw a stick man

Approximate age and posture of the person drawn

Question 12A quiet 3-year-old is brought in for a routine check-up when you notice a fresh bruise in the axilla and bilateral bruises over the upper back that appear slightly older. There are brown bruises over his shins as well. His mother said this happened when he fell off of a couch. What diagnosis should be considered?

Von Willebrand's disease

Normal childhood bruises from activity

Abuse

Seizure disorder

Question 13A 15-month-old is brought to you for a fever of 38.6 degrees Celsius and fussiness. The ear examination is as follows: external ear, normal appearance and no tenderness with manipulation; canal, normal diameter without evidence of inflammation; tympanic membrane, bulging, erythematous, and opaque. Insufflation is deferred due to pain. What is your diagnosis?

Otitis externa

Cholesteatoma

Ruptured tympanic membrane

Otitis media

Question 14You diagnose an infant in the clinic with Seborrheic Dermatitis. What physical exam findings are most consistent with this diagnosis?

Erythema of the scalp

Pustules on the scalp

Dry, flaking areas on the scalp

Ecchymosis on the scalp

Question 15You are assessing Tanner staging of the breast in a young woman. You notice projection of the areola and nipple to form a secondary mound above the level of the breast. Which Tanner stage would this be?

I

II

III

IV

Question 16When measuring the length of an infant, the measurement should extend from:

Forehead to feet

Crown to tip of toes in prone position

Head to toes in upright position

Crown to heel in supine position

Question 17When examining the skull of a 4-month old baby, you should normally find:

Closure of the anterior fontanel

Closure of the posterior fontanel

Closure of both the anterior and posterior fontanel

Overlap of the cranial bones

Question 18A 17 year old girl presents to the clinic for a sports physical for cheerleading. Physical examination findings reveal BMI of 15, bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scabs and scars on her knuckles. You should ask her if she:

Is heat intolerant

If she binges and vomits

If she is constipated

Falls a lot

Question 19A toddler is able to jump in place and balance on one foot as well. She can also speak in full sentences and feed herself. What is the approximate developmental age of this child?

2 years

3 years

4 years

5 years

Question 20You are assessing an ill toddler in your office. He responds when spoken loudly to or physically stimulated but then appears to fall back to sleep. This level of consciousness is:

Alert

Lethargic

Comatose

Unconscious

 

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 5 Quiz

Question 1Atrial fibrillation is characterized by _____.

an erratic, wavy baseline and irregular ventricular rhythm

"saw-tooth"- or "picket-fence"-shaped waveforms preceding each QRS

one P wave before each QRS and a regular ventricular rate of 60 to 100 beats/min

P waves occurring before, during, or after the QRS complex; when seen, they are inverted

Question 2Which of the following are possible causes of sinus bradycardia?

Elevated temperature, pain

Increased intracranial pressure, beta-blocker overdose

Hypoxia, fright, caffeine-containing beverages

Hypovolemia, administration of sympathomimetics

Question 3An ECG rhythm strip shows a regular ventricular rhythm at a rate of 30 beats/min, more P waves than QRS complexes (the P waves occur regularly), a variable PR interval, and a QRS duration of 0.14 seconds. This rhythm is _____.

2:1 AV block

third-degree AV block

second-degree AV block type I

second-degree AV block type II

Question 4How are frequent PACs usually managed?

Defibrillation

Synchronized cardioversion

Correcting the underlying cause

Administration of medications such as atropine or epinephrine

Question 5What is meant by the term pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?

A chaotic rhythm that is likely to degenerate into cardiac arrest

An organized rhythm on the cardiac monitor (other than VT), although a pulse is not present

A slow rhythm with a wide QRS complex

A flat line on the cardiac monitor

Question 6Which of the following are possible causes of sinus tachycardia?

Hypothermia, hypovolemia

Hypoxia, calcium channel blocker overdose

Fever, pain, anxiety

Vomiting, vagal maneuvers

Question 7A delta wave is an ECG characteristic associated with which of the following dysrhythmias?

Junctional rhythm

AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm (AIVR)

Question 8 Tall, peaked T waves observed on the ECG are most commonly seen in patients with _____.

hypokalemia

hyponatremia

hyperkalemia

hypernatremia

Question 9An ECG rhythm strip shows a ventricular rate of 46 bpm, a regular rhythm, a PR interval of 0.14 seconds, a QRS duration of 0.06 seconds, and one upright P wave before each QRS. This rhythm is _____.

sinus rhythm

sinus bradycardia

sinus arrest

sinoatrial block

Question 10To determine whether the ventricular rhythm on an ECG tracing is regular or irregular, compare _____ intervals.

PR

R to R

TP

P to

 

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 6 Quiz

Assignment Content

Question 1 Because hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression can occur up to four days after an injection,

1.Inject only one large joint at a time

2. chances are high that an infection is likely to occur

3. inject as many joints as necessary

4. prophylactic oral antibiotics are recommended 24 hours prior to injection

Question 2The application of phenol during partial toenail removal does which of the following?

1.Prevents infection

2. Provides pain relief up to 12 hours

3. Prevents nail regrowth

4. Aids in the regrowth of the nail

Question 3Joint aspirations are contraindicated in patients who are

1. anticoagulated or have a major clotting disorder

2.pregnant

3. diabetics

4. vascularly compromised

Question 4  When doing an intra-articular injection,

1. inject the medication into the jointdespite resistance

2. use a 3 cc syringe and a 25 gaugeneedle to draw up 2.5 cc of 1% lidocaine and 0.5 cc of corticosteroid

3. do not mix the syringe prior to injecting

4. keep the joint immobile to preventextravasation after the injection

Question 5 What is the correct sequence for wound or laceration treatment?

1. Obtain informed written consent, assess the wound for more serious underlying disorders, assess the neuro function, cleanse the wound with aseptic solution, provide the patient with appropriate anesthesia, and explore, irrigate, debride, and prepare the wound for suturing.

2.Cleanse the wound with aseptic solution, obtain informed written consent, assess the wound for more serious underlying disorders, provide the patient with appropriate anesthesia, and explore, irrigate, debride, and prepare the wound for suturing.

3.Provide the patient with appropriate anesthesia; explore, irrigate, debride, and prepare the wound for suturing; obtain informed written consent; and assess the wound for more serious underlying disorders.

4. Assess the wound for more serious underlying disorders, cleanse the wound with aseptic solution, provide the patient with appropriate anesthesia, and explore, irrigate, debride, and prepare wound for suturing.

Question 6 A 40-year-old male presents to your clinic and has a suspicious lesion on his back. You believe the lesion may be a basal cell carcinoma. After obtaining consent from your patient, you remove the lesion with an elliptical incision and send the specimen to the lab. The lesion has left a 2.5 cm long laceration that is wide and shallow. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of suture technique?

1. Horizontal mattress

2. Dermabond

3. Running interrupted sutures

4. Duct tape

Question 7One of the critical steps when performing an intra-articular injection is to pull back on the syringe prior to injecting the corticosteroid solution. The purpose of this is to? Edmunds and Mayhew page 320.

1. remove any excess fluid

2. check the plunger movement prior to injection

3. aspirate to make sure you are not injecting into the vascular bed

4. remove any air which may be in the intra-articular space

Question 8 What is the correct sequence for a toenail removal procedure?

1.Position the patient comfortably in a supine position. Clean the toe with an aseptic solution. Administer a bilateral digital nerve block with 2% lidocaine. Use a nail elevator to free the nail sulcus and eponychium from the nail plate.

2.The patient may soak the foot the night before the procedure by wrapping the toe or foot in a wet cloth. Position the patient comfortably in a supine position. Administer a bilateral digital nerve block with 2% lidocaine. Clean the toe with an aseptic solution. Use a nail elevator to free the nail sulcus and eponychium from the nail plate.

3.The patient may soak the foot the night before the procedure by wrapping the toe or foot in a wet cloth. Position the patient comfortably in a supine position. Use a nail elevator to free the nail sulcus and eponychium from the nail plate. Clean the toe with an aseptic solution. Administer a bilateral digital nerve block with 2% lidocaine. Clean the toe with an aseptic solution.

Question 9Which of the following patients has an increased risk of infection following toenail removal?

1. A type I labile Diabetic

2. Immune-competent patient

3. A 78-year-old male

4. Patient just recovering from a viral upper respiratory infection

Question 10Suturing a laceration or a wound prior to aseptic cleansing and debridement may result in?

1. lower chance of infection

2. increased scarring

3. less pain

4. dermatological pigmentation changes

 

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 7 Quiz

Question 1The severity of obstruction is indicated by what?

1. the value of FVC

2. the value of FEV1/FVC

3. the value of FEV1

4. the value of SPo2

Question 2Which of the following are the Ottawa rules for obtaining x-rays for ankle injuries?

1. Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm posterior edge of tibia or the tip of the medial malleolus

2. Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm posterior edge of fibula or the tip of the lateral malleolus

3. Inability to bear weight at time of injury and unable to bear weight with four steps during exam

4. All of the above

Question 3What is the primary indication for an abdominal plain film (KUB)?

1. Rule out Helicobacter pylori infection

2. Evaluate abdominal hernia

3. Check for suspected intraperitoneal free air

4. Evaluation of postoperative abdominal infection

Question 4A patient with a Permanent Pacemaker cannot undergo which of the following imaging studies?

1. X-ray

2.MRI

3. CT scan with contrast

4. CT scan without contrast

Question 5A patient’s FEV1 and absolute FEV1/FVC ratio are both decreased. This indicates a what?

1. restrictive ventilatory pattern

2. obstructive ventilatory pattern

3. thermid-expiratory pattern

4. maximal voluntary ventilation pattern

Question 6The FEV1/FVC value varies according to?

1. BMI and FEV of the patient

2. age and height of the patient

3.BMI and TLV of the patient

4. age and PEF of the patient

Question 7Obstruction is reversible if there is a ____% or greater increase on the FVC or FEV1 after a bronchodilator challenge.

1.3%

2.5%

3. 7%

4. 12%

Question 8What is your diagnosis on the basis of this X-ray?

1.Pulmonary fibrosis

2. Pneumonia

3. Pneumothorax

4. Congestive Heart Failure

Question 9Why is a pediatric patient younger than three years not a candidate for spirometry testing?

1.Lung volumes are to low

2. Too young to follow directions

3. Prone to vomiting and may aspirate

4. Testing in pediatric patients may precipitate respiratory failure

Question 10A patient’s spirometry results are as follows: FVC normal, FEV1 decreased, Absolute FEV1/FVC <70%. What is your diagnosis?

1. Restrictive impairment

2.Obstructive impairment

3. Normal

4. Reversible impairment

 

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 8 Quiz

Question 1Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting:

1. grading scale of 0 to 4.

2.color and consistency.

3.demographic data and risk factors.

4.associated symptoms in alphabetic order.

Question 2Spaces between the cranial bones accommodate:

1.brain growth.

2.cartilage formation.

3.muscular expansion.

4. nerve regeneration.

Question 3The quality of a symptom, such as pain, is subjective information that should be:

1. deferred until the cause is determined.

2. described in the history.

3. placed in the past medical history section.

4. placed in the history with objective data.

Question 4The QRS complex is the electrocardiographic expression of:

1. the electrical activation of the ventricular myocardium

2. the electrical activation of the atrial myocardium

3. the electrical activation of the left ventricular wall

4. the electrical activation of the AV node

Question 5Lidocaine has a longer time to onset of action and longer duration than Marcaine.

1. True

2.False

Question 6If information is purposefully omitted from the record, you should:

1. erase the notes that are not pertinent.

2. accept that sometimes data are omitted.

3. state in the record why the information was omitted.

4. use correction fluid to cover the information.

Question 7The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks:

1.are methods for recording locations of findings.

2. are used for noting disease progression.

3. are ways for recording laboratory study results.

4. should not be used in the legal record.

Question 8The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

1. pregnancy

2. nulliparity

3. pelvic inflammatory disease

4. vulvovaginitis

Question 9Itchy, painful, small red vesicles are typical of:

1. condyloma acuminatum.

2.condyloma latum.

3. herpes simplex lesions.

4.syphilitic chancre.

Question 106-month-old who can hear well can be expected to:

1. exhibit the Moro reflex.

2. stop breathing in response to sudden noise.

3. turn his or her head toward the source of sound.

4. imitate simple words.

Question 11Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:

1. adult males.

2. patients with lung disease.

3. pregnant women.

4. pubertal females.

Question 12

A patient has received suturing of the left upper arm after a simple three-inch long laceration. What is the recommended follow up for suture removal?

1. 7–10 days

2. 2 weeks

3. The next day

4. 3–5 days

Question 13Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?

1.Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes

2. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision

3.Blinking when bright light is directed at the face

4.White pupils on photographs

Question 14Which bronchial structure(s) is(are) most susceptible to aspiration of foreign bodies?

1. Left mainstem bronchus

2.Terminal bronchioles

3. Right mainstem bronchus

4. Respiratory bronchioles

Question 15What is the primary indication for an abdominal plain film (KUB)?

1. Rule out Helicobacter pylori infection

2. valuate abdominal hernia

3.Check for suspected intraperitoneal free air

4. Evaluation of postoperative abdominal infection

Question 16Long bones in children have growth plates known as:

1. epiphyses

2. epicondyles

3.synovium

4. fossae

Question 17The mother of an 8-year-old child reports that she has recently noticed a discharge stain on her daughter’s underwear. Both the mother and daughter appear nervous and concerned. You would need to ask questions to assess the child’s:

1.drug ingestion.

2.fluid intake.

3. risk for sexual abuse.

4. hormone responsiveness.

Question 18The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is:

1. testicular torsion

2. epididymitis

3.tumor

4.hydrocele

Question 19In an uncircumcised male, retraction of the foreskin may reveal cheesy white material. This is usually:

1. evidence of a fungal infection.

2.a collection of sebaceous material.

3.indicative of penile carcinoma.

4.suggestive of diabetes.

Question 20A 65-year-old male patient presents to your clinic for his annual physical, a routine ECG is obtained which shows atrial fibrillation with a rate of 177. His BP is 80. He is diaphoretic and complains of feeling dizzy. The patient

1. requires no intervention

2. should be told to make an appointment with a cardiologist with no further intervention

3.requires immediate intervention as he is considered unstable

4.needs to be scheduled for a treadmill test

Question 21Mrs. Leonard brings her newborn infant into the pediatrician’s office for a first well-baby visit. As the health care provider, you teach her that newborns are more vulnerable to hypothermia due to:

1.the presence of coarse terminal hair.

2.desquamation of the stratum corneum.

3.their covering of vernix caseosa.

4.a poorly developed subcutaneous fat layer.

Question 22

When collecting specimens, which sample should be obtained first?

1.Chlamydial swab

2.Gonococcal culture

3.Pap smear

4.Wet mount

Question 23

Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant’s middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:

1.pull the auricle down and back.

2.hold the speculum in the canal.

3.distract the infant.

4.stabilize the chest.

Question 24

The presence of a fishy odor after dropping potassium hydroxide on a wet mount slide containing vaginal mucus suggests:

1.bacterial vaginosis.

2.yeast infection.

3.chlamydial infection.

4.pregnancy.

Question 25

Which of the following are the Ottawa rules for obtaining x-rays for ankle injuries?

1.Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm posterior edge of tibia or the tip of the medial malleolus

2.Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm posterior edge of fibula or the tip of the lateral malleolus

3.Inability to bear weight at time of injury and unable to bear weight with four steps during exam

4.All of the above

Question 26

A cremasteric reflex should result in:

1.testicular and scrotal rise on the stroked side.

2.penile deviation to the left side.

3.bilateral elevation of the scrotum.

4.immediate erection of the penis.

Question 27

Developmental changes of puberty are caused mainly by the interaction of the pituitary gland, gonads, and:

1.hypothalamus.

2.islet cells.

3.thalamus.

4.thymus.

Question 28

The brown or tan pigmentation on the forehead, nose, and malar prominence of some pregnant women is called:

1.hormonal acne.

2.erythema.

3.alopecia.

4.chloasma

Question 29

To prevent personal appearance from becoming an obstacle in patient care, the health professional should:

1.wear a uniform.

2.avoid wearing white.

3.avoid extremes in dress.

4.avoid wearing any jewelry.

Question 30

Which rhythm abnormality requires emergent intervention?

1.Sinus rhythm with first-degree AV block

2.Sinus arrhythmia

3.Ventricular fibrillation

4.Stable sinus tachycardia

Question 31

Mrs. Simmler brings in her adolescent daughter for a routine physical examination. As you are explaining the health promotion activities, you remind the patient that approximately 75% of females are menstruating by which Tanner stage of breast development?

1.Stage 1

2.Stage 2

3.Stage 3

4.Stage 4

Question 32

Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?

1.Macular degeneration

2.Papilledema

3.Subconjunctival hemorrhage

4.Cupping of the optic disc

Question 33

Mr. Johnson is a 43-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you note that the urethral meatus opens on the ventral surface of his penis. You determine that he has which condition?

1.Epispadias

2.Hydrocele

3.Hypospadias

4.Normal variation

Question 34

A patient with a standard Permanent Pacemaker cannot undergo which of the following imaging studies?

1.X-ray

2.MRI

3.CT scan with contrast

4.CT scan without contrast

Question 35

“3-0” suture material is thicker or thinner than “9-0” suture material?

1.Thicker

2.Thinner

Question 36

Verbal consent is as good as written consent for office procedures:

1. True

2. False

Question 37

When examining the skull of a 4-month-old baby, you should normally find:

1.closure of the anterior fontanel.

2.closure of the posterior fontanel.

3.ossification of all sutures.

4.overlap of cranial bones.

Question 38

While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that the penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:

1.within normal limits.

2.suggestiveof a skin fungus.

3.suggestive of psoriasis.

4.due to excessive progesterone.

Question 39

Pearly gray, smooth, dome-shaped, often umbilicated lesions of the glans penis are probably:

1.herpetic lesions

2.condylomata

3.molluscum contagiosum

4.chancres

Question 40

The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:

1.Screening for steroid use or abuse.

2.Determining the best fit for positions in each sport.

3.Identifying risk of injury or death during sports

4.Securing a legal contract before recommending limiting participation

Question 41

Which of the following techniques is part of the proper procedure for cleansing a wound or laceration?

1.Start from the outer edges and swab in a circular pattern toward the center.

2.Start from the center and swab in a circular pattern toward the periphery.

Question 42

The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:

1.painful, inflamed testicles.

2.deviation of the penis during erection.

3.lack of sexual interest.

4.painful lesions of the penis.

Question 43

On palpation, a normal vas deferens should feel:

1.beaded

2.smooth

3.ridged

4.spongy

Question 44

To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with:

1.her arms straight alongside of her body.

2.both arms overhead with palms upward.

3.her hands clasped just above the umbilicus.

4.one arm overhead and a pillow under her shoulder.

Question 45

Male gynecomastia associated with illicit or prescription drug use can be expected to:

1.lessen when the body becomes accustomed to the drug.

2.resolve after the drug is discontinued.

3.leave permanent breast enlargement when the drug is discontinued.

4.cause purulent drainage if left untreated.

Question 46

The visualization of a large proportion of “clue cells” on your wet mount slide examination suggests:

1.trichomonal infection.

2.bacterial vaginosis.

3.candidiasis.

4.gonorrhea.

Question 47

Which technique is appropriate for detecting an inguinal hernia?

1.Conduct percussion while the patient coughs.

2.Have the patient strain as you pinch the testes.

3.Inspect rectal areas as the patient bears down.

4.Move your finger upward along the vas deferens.

Question 48

Mrs. Jones, a 45-year-old patient, comes into the office today with a complaint of a breast lump. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about:

1.its relationship to menses.

2.weight gain.

3.sleep patterns.

4.immunization status.

Question 49

A cervical polyp usually appears as a:

1.grainy area at the ectocervical junction.

2.bright-red soft protrusion from the endocervical canal.

3.transverse or stellate scar.

4.hard granular surface at or near the os.

Question 50

While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding:

1.history of medication allergies.

2.alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine use.

3.level of personal education.

4.amount of personal income.