UOP NRP571 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2021 October

NRP571 Advanced Health Assessment IIand Clinical Procedures

Week 8 Quiz

Question 1Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting:

1. grading scale of 0 to 4.

2.color and consistency.

3.demographic data and risk factors.

4.associated symptoms in alphabetic order.

Question 2Spaces between the cranial bones accommodate:

1.brain growth.

2.cartilage formation.

3.muscular expansion.

4. nerve regeneration.

Question 3The quality of a symptom, such as pain, is subjective information that should be:

1. deferred until the cause is determined.

2. described in the history.

3. placed in the past medical history section.

4. placed in the history with objective data.

Question 4The QRS complex is the electrocardiographic expression of:

1. the electrical activation of the ventricular myocardium

2. the electrical activation of the atrial myocardium

3. the electrical activation of the left ventricular wall

4. the electrical activation of the AV node

Question 5Lidocaine has a longer time to onset of action and longer duration than Marcaine.

1. True

2.False

Question 6If information is purposefully omitted from the record, you should:

1. erase the notes that are not pertinent.

2. accept that sometimes data are omitted.

3. state in the record why the information was omitted.

4. use correction fluid to cover the information.

Question 7The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks:

1.are methods for recording locations of findings.

2. are used for noting disease progression.

3. are ways for recording laboratory study results.

4. should not be used in the legal record.

Question 8The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

1. pregnancy

2. nulliparity

3. pelvic inflammatory disease

4. vulvovaginitis

Question 9Itchy, painful, small red vesicles are typical of:

1. condyloma acuminatum.

2.condyloma latum.

3. herpes simplex lesions.

4.syphilitic chancre.

Question 106-month-old who can hear well can be expected to:

1. exhibit the Moro reflex.

2. stop breathing in response to sudden noise.

3. turn his or her head toward the source of sound.

4. imitate simple words.

Question 11Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:

1. adult males.

2. patients with lung disease.

3. pregnant women.

4. pubertal females.

Question 12

A patient has received suturing of the left upper arm after a simple three-inch long laceration. What is the recommended follow up for suture removal?

1. 7–10 days

2. 2 weeks

3. The next day

4. 3–5 days

Question 13Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?

1.Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes

2. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision

3.Blinking when bright light is directed at the face

4.White pupils on photographs

Question 14Which bronchial structure(s) is(are) most susceptible to aspiration of foreign bodies?

1. Left mainstem bronchus

2.Terminal bronchioles

3. Right mainstem bronchus

4. Respiratory bronchioles

Question 15What is the primary indication for an abdominal plain film (KUB)?

1. Rule out Helicobacter pylori infection

2. valuate abdominal hernia

3.Check for suspected intraperitoneal free air

4. Evaluation of postoperative abdominal infection

Question 16Long bones in children have growth plates known as:

1. epiphyses

2. epicondyles

3.synovium

4. fossae

Question 17The mother of an 8-year-old child reports that she has recently noticed a discharge stain on her daughter’s underwear. Both the mother and daughter appear nervous and concerned. You would need to ask questions to assess the child’s:

1.drug ingestion.

2.fluid intake.

3. risk for sexual abuse.

4. hormone responsiveness.

Question 18The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is:

1. testicular torsion

2. epididymitis

3.tumor

4.hydrocele

Question 19In an uncircumcised male, retraction of the foreskin may reveal cheesy white material. This is usually:

1. evidence of a fungal infection.

2.a collection of sebaceous material.

3.indicative of penile carcinoma.

4.suggestive of diabetes.

Question 20A 65-year-old male patient presents to your clinic for his annual physical, a routine ECG is obtained which shows atrial fibrillation with a rate of 177. His BP is 80. He is diaphoretic and complains of feeling dizzy. The patient

1. requires no intervention

2. should be told to make an appointment with a cardiologist with no further intervention

3.requires immediate intervention as he is considered unstable

4.needs to be scheduled for a treadmill test

Question 21Mrs. Leonard brings her newborn infant into the pediatrician’s office for a first well-baby visit. As the health care provider, you teach her that newborns are more vulnerable to hypothermia due to:

1.the presence of coarse terminal hair.

2.desquamation of the stratum corneum.

3.their covering of vernix caseosa.

4.a poorly developed subcutaneous fat layer.

Question 22

When collecting specimens, which sample should be obtained first?

1.Chlamydial swab

2.Gonococcal culture

3.Pap smear

4.Wet mount

Question 23

Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant’s middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:

1.pull the auricle down and back.

2.hold the speculum in the canal.

3.distract the infant.

4.stabilize the chest.

Question 24

The presence of a fishy odor after dropping potassium hydroxide on a wet mount slide containing vaginal mucus suggests:

1.bacterial vaginosis.

2.yeast infection.

3.chlamydial infection.

4.pregnancy.

Question 25

Which of the following are the Ottawa rules for obtaining x-rays for ankle injuries?

1.Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm posterior edge of tibia or the tip of the medial malleolus

2.Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm posterior edge of fibula or the tip of the lateral malleolus

3.Inability to bear weight at time of injury and unable to bear weight with four steps during exam

4.All of the above

Question 26

A cremasteric reflex should result in:

1.testicular and scrotal rise on the stroked side.

2.penile deviation to the left side.

3.bilateral elevation of the scrotum.

4.immediate erection of the penis.

Question 27

Developmental changes of puberty are caused mainly by the interaction of the pituitary gland, gonads, and:

1.hypothalamus.

2.islet cells.

3.thalamus.

4.thymus.

Question 28

The brown or tan pigmentation on the forehead, nose, and malar prominence of some pregnant women is called:

1.hormonal acne.

2.erythema.

3.alopecia.

4.chloasma

Question 29

To prevent personal appearance from becoming an obstacle in patient care, the health professional should:

1.wear a uniform.

2.avoid wearing white.

3.avoid extremes in dress.

4.avoid wearing any jewelry.

Question 30

Which rhythm abnormality requires emergent intervention?

1.Sinus rhythm with first-degree AV block

2.Sinus arrhythmia

3.Ventricular fibrillation

4.Stable sinus tachycardia

Question 31

Mrs. Simmler brings in her adolescent daughter for a routine physical examination. As you are explaining the health promotion activities, you remind the patient that approximately 75% of females are menstruating by which Tanner stage of breast development?

1.Stage 1

2.Stage 2

3.Stage 3

4.Stage 4

Question 32

Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?

1.Macular degeneration

2.Papilledema

3.Subconjunctival hemorrhage

4.Cupping of the optic disc

Question 33

Mr. Johnson is a 43-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you note that the urethral meatus opens on the ventral surface of his penis. You determine that he has which condition?

1.Epispadias

2.Hydrocele

3.Hypospadias

4.Normal variation

Question 34

A patient with a standard Permanent Pacemaker cannot undergo which of the following imaging studies?

1.X-ray

2.MRI

3.CT scan with contrast

4.CT scan without contrast

Question 35

“3-0” suture material is thicker or thinner than “9-0” suture material?

1.Thicker

2.Thinner

Question 36

Verbal consent is as good as written consent for office procedures:

1. True

2. False

Question 37

When examining the skull of a 4-month-old baby, you should normally find:

1.closure of the anterior fontanel.

2.closure of the posterior fontanel.

3.ossification of all sutures.

4.overlap of cranial bones.

Question 38

While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that the penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:

1.within normal limits.

2.suggestiveof a skin fungus.

3.suggestive of psoriasis.

4.due to excessive progesterone.

Question 39

Pearly gray, smooth, dome-shaped, often umbilicated lesions of the glans penis are probably:

1.herpetic lesions

2.condylomata

3.molluscum contagiosum

4.chancres

Question 40

The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:

1.Screening for steroid use or abuse.

2.Determining the best fit for positions in each sport.

3.Identifying risk of injury or death during sports

4.Securing a legal contract before recommending limiting participation

Question 41

Which of the following techniques is part of the proper procedure for cleansing a wound or laceration?

1.Start from the outer edges and swab in a circular pattern toward the center.

2.Start from the center and swab in a circular pattern toward the periphery.

Question 42

The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:

1.painful, inflamed testicles.

2.deviation of the penis during erection.

3.lack of sexual interest.

4.painful lesions of the penis.

Question 43

On palpation, a normal vas deferens should feel:

1.beaded

2.smooth

3.ridged

4.spongy

Question 44

To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with:

1.her arms straight alongside of her body.

2.both arms overhead with palms upward.

3.her hands clasped just above the umbilicus.

4.one arm overhead and a pillow under her shoulder.

Question 45

Male gynecomastia associated with illicit or prescription drug use can be expected to:

1.lessen when the body becomes accustomed to the drug.

2.resolve after the drug is discontinued.

3.leave permanent breast enlargement when the drug is discontinued.

4.cause purulent drainage if left untreated.

Question 46

The visualization of a large proportion of “clue cells” on your wet mount slide examination suggests:

1.trichomonal infection.

2.bacterial vaginosis.

3.candidiasis.

4.gonorrhea.

Question 47

Which technique is appropriate for detecting an inguinal hernia?

1.Conduct percussion while the patient coughs.

2.Have the patient strain as you pinch the testes.

3.Inspect rectal areas as the patient bears down.

4.Move your finger upward along the vas deferens.

Question 48

Mrs. Jones, a 45-year-old patient, comes into the office today with a complaint of a breast lump. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about:

1.its relationship to menses.

2.weight gain.

3.sleep patterns.

4.immunization status.

Question 49

A cervical polyp usually appears as a:

1.grainy area at the ectocervical junction.

2.bright-red soft protrusion from the endocervical canal.

3.transverse or stellate scar.

4.hard granular surface at or near the os.

Question 50

While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding:

1.history of medication allergies.

2.alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine use.

3.level of personal education.

4.amount of personal income.