PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 1 Understanding Assignment
Question 1 Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as
lymphoma.
sarcomas.
carcinomas.
adenomas.
Question 2 Metaplasia is
the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
an irreversible cellular adaptation.
the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Question 3 The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
decreased functional reserve.
diseased function.
programmed senescence.
senility.
Question 4The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
hydropic swelling.
lactate production.
metaplasia.
intracellular accumulations.
Question 5A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct?
“Lung cancer is always fatal.”
“Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate.”
“Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early.”
“Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers.”
Question 6After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will
selectively kill tumor cells.
stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.
have minimal side effects.
kill rapidly dividing cells.
Question 7The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the
membrane.
DNA.
RNA.
ribosomes.
Cellular DNA is particularly susceptible to damage from radiation via breakage of the bonds holding the linear DNA together. Cell membranes, RNA, and ribosomes are not the most susceptible to radiation injury.
Question 8Carbon monoxide injures cells by
destruction of cellular membranes.
reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.
promotion of free radicals.
crystallization of cellular organelles.
Question 9The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is
Rb.
P53.
DCC.
APC.
Question 10Cancer grading is based on
tumor size.
local invasion.
cell differentiation.
metastasis.
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 2 Understanding Assignment
Question 1A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is
monocytes.
mast cells.
neutrophils.
cytotoxic cells.
Question 2An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is
complement.
antigen–antibody immune complexes.
T cells.
histamine.
Question 3Peripheral edema is a result of
arterial insufficiency.
venous thrombosis.
hypertension.
atherosclerosis.
Question 4The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called
bcr-abl.
Rb.
p53.
ARA-c.
Question 5Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Question 6Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
female gender.
hyperlipidemia.
high-protein diet.
low-fiber diet.
Question 7The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Question 8Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?
Peripheral edema
Absent peripheral pulses
Redness and swelling
Atrophy of distal tissues
Question 9A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
I
II
III
IV
Question 10What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
Resistance doubles.
Resistance decreases by a factor of 16.
Resistance decreases by half.
Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 3 Understanding Assignment
Question 1The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is
severe, crushing chest pain.
ST-segment elevation.
dysrhythmias.
pain radiating to the lower legs.
Question 2Hypertension is closely linked to
obstructive sleep apnea.
urinary tract infection.
de Quervain syndrome.
spinal stenosis.
Question 3Constrictive pericarditis is associated with
impaired cardiac filling.
cardiac hypertrophy.
increased cardiac preload.
elevated myocardial oxygen consumption.
Question 4A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of
aortic regurgitation.
aortic stenosis.
mitral regurgitation.
mitral stenosis.
Question 5Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Magnesium
Question 6While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?
Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.
Measures to decrease LDL levels in the elderly would be unlikely to affect the progression of this disease.
Increased LDL levels are indicative of moderate alcohol intake, and patients should be advised to abstain.
Elevated LDL levels are an expected finding in the elderly and therefore are not particularly significant.
Question 7Aortic regurgitation is associated with
diastolic murmur.
elevated left ventricular/aortic systolic pressure gradient.
elevated systemic diastolic blood pressure.
shortened ventricular ejection phase.
Question 8A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomology is most likely related to
hypertension.
hypotension.
deep vein thrombosis.
angina.
Question 9After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
Continue lifestyle modifications only.
Continue lifestyle modifications plus diuretic therapy.
Continue lifestyle modifications plus ACE inhibitor therapy.
Continue lifestyle modifications plus b-blocker therapy.
Question 10The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.
True
False
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 4 Understanding Assignment
Question 1After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is
of unknown pathogenesis.
associated with specific allergic triggers.
associated with respiratory infections.
induced by psychological factors (stress).
Question 2Croup is characterized by
a productive cough.
a barking cough.
an inability to cough.
drooling, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing.
Question 3Empyema is defined as an
exudative bronchitis.
infection in the pleural space.
infection localized in the lung.
infection in the blood.
Question 4Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a patient diagnosed with
myasthenia gravis.
poliomyelitis.
Pickwickian syndrome.
pneumonia.
Question 5A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) disease is
contaminated water.
immunosuppression.
being a male.
overuse of antibiotics.
Question 6Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of
angiotensin.
atrial natriuretic peptide.
aldosterone.
vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).
Question 7Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of
release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells.
air trapping with resultant excessive alveolar pressure.
excessive α1-antitrypsin.
autoantibodies against pulmonary basement membrane.
Question 8An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with
hypokalemia.
hyperkalemia.
hypocalcemia.
hypercalcemia.
Question 9To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke
impairs α1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.
paralyzes the cilia, causing impaired mucociliary clearance.
predisposes to respiratory infections.
introduces carcinogens into the lungs.
Question 10Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of
thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
loss of alveolar elastin.
pulmonary edema.
hyperplasia and deformation of bronchial cartilage.
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 5 Understanding Assignment
Question 1Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by
endometrial inflammation.
reproductive tract malignancies.
endometrial fibroid tumors.
absent or diminished levels of progesterone.
Question 2Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
Infants and children
Sexually active women
Adult males
Patients taking diuretics
Question 3The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of
neuroses.
ureteral stone.
neurogenic bladder.
interstitial cystitis.
Question 4The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is
smoking.
recurrent bladder infections.
low fluid intake.
family history of bladder cancer.
Question 5Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
True
False
Question 6Cryptorchidism is
associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
an extremely uncommon disorder.
rarely treated.
a consequence of gonorrhea.
Question 7What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
Rectocele
Menopause
Cystocele
Cervicitis
Question 8Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.
catheter.
IUD.
pessary.
endopelvic mesh implant.
Question 9The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of
WBCs and RBCs.
nitrites.
casts.
bacteria.
Question 10A patient, age 3, has vesicoureteral reflux. “Why does that make him have so many bladder infections?” asks his mother. The nurse’s best response is
“When he urinates, the urine makes a fluid trail to the bladder, and if he does not clean himself well, bacteria will enter and make a bladder infection.”
“When he urinates, urine runs back toward his kidneys and then into the bladder again, making it easy for bacteria to grow if they reach the bladder.”
“When he urinates, urine leaks into his bowel and bacteria from the bowel leak into the bladder, where they grow and make a bladder infection.”
“When he urinates, urine stays in his bladder and the normal bacteria that live in the bladder have a chance to grow and cause a bladder infection.”
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 6 Understanding Assignment
Question 1It is true that biliary cancer
is most often cured by surgery.
respond well to chemotherapy.
are identifiable and treatable when diagnosed early.
tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.
Question 2The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is
volvulus.
intussusception.
adhesions.
fecal impaction.
Question 3Chronic pancreatitis may lead to
diabetes mellitus.
Crohn disease.
gallstones.
celiac sprue.
Question 4An urgent surgical consult is indicated for the patient with acute abdominal pain and
vomiting.
CVA tenderness.
absent bowel sounds.
borborygmi.
Question 5Normal bile is composed of
water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.
proteins.
bile acids.
phospholipids.
Question 6Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.
gangrene
infection
distention
inflammation
Question 7Jaundice is a common manifestation of
malabsorption syndromes.
anemia.
liver disease.
cholecystitis.
Question 8Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by
maintaining a low-fiber diet.
maintaining the current level of activity.
fecal disimpaction.
increasing fiber in the diet.
Question 9A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of
glucose.
octreotide acetate.
anticoagulants.
proton pump inhibitors.
Question 10The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.
sharp and constant
steady and boring
intermittent and burning
intermittent and stabbing
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 7 Understanding Assignment
Question 1The most common site affected in Paget’s disease is the
lower spine.
skull.
pelvis.
joints.
Question 2 Systemic disorders include
adhesive capsulitis.
verrucae.
osteoarthritis.
rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 3Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a rheumatic disease attributed to
wear and tear on weight-bearing joints.
septic joint inflammation and necrosis.
unknown etiologic factors.
autoimmune mechanisms.
Question 4The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called
subluxation.
subjugation
sublimation.
dislocation.
Question 5One of the most common causes of acute pain is
headache.
fibromyalgia.
malignancy.
trigeminal neuralgia.
Question 6Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of
defective replacement material.
injury to the joint.
hematogenous transfer.
arthritis.
Question 7The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as
osteomyelitis.
osteoporosis.
Paget disease.
rickets.
Question 8Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called
malunion.
nonunion.
disunion.
delayed union.
Question 9A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as
comminuted.
open.
greenstick.
stress.
Question 10Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to
increase the administration his pain medication.
initiate action to have the cast split or removed.
note the increase in pain in his chart, and recheck the extremity in 30 minutes.
elevate the extremity to relieve swelling.
PATH370 Pathophysiology
Week 8 Understanding Assignment
Question 1In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of
dietary inadequacies.
estrogen deficiency.
malabsorption syndrome.
inactivity.
Question 2Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include
weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.
thirst, dry mucous membranes, and diarrhea.
confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures.
cardiac dysrhythmias, paresthesias, and muscle weakness.
Question 3The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is
smoking.
recurrent bladder infections.
low fluid intake.
family history of bladder cancer.
Question 4A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is
broken in two or more pieces.
cracked but not completely separated.
broken along the long axis.
broken and protruding through the skin.
Question 5Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
Increased total iron-binding capacity
Increased heart rate
Hypovolemia
Jaundice
Question 6The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by
reflex urination and defecation.
autonomic dysreflexia.
absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.
motor spasticity and hyperreflexia below the level of injury.
Question 7A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of
glucose.
octreotide acetate.
anticoagulants.
proton pump inhibitors.
Question 8The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is
bone infection.
fat emboli.
air embolus.
compartment syndrome.
Question 9Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by
decreased carbon dioxide.
elevated carbon dioxide.
decreased bicarbonate ion concentration.
elevated bicarbonate ion concentration.
Question 10Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases
sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney.
potassium secretion in the distal tubule of the kidney.
water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.
urinary output.
